Probability wave function is still in ground state after imparting momentum

AI Thread Summary
An instantaneous force imparts momentum to a ground state simple harmonic oscillator (SHO) wave function, leading to the question of the probability of remaining in the ground state. The proposed wave function after the interaction is expressed as a product of the ground state wave function and a phase factor. The probability is calculated using the integral of the product of the wave functions, leading to the expression P = e^{-k_{0}^{2}\hbar/(4mw)}. There is a discussion on the method of solving the integral, with suggestions to use integration by parts or shortcuts based on normalization. The conversation emphasizes the importance of correctly applying quantum mechanics principles to determine the probability.
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Homework Statement


An interaction occurs so that an instantaneous force acts on a particle imparting a momentum ## p_{0} = \hbar k_{0}## to the ground state SHO wave function. Find the probability that the system is still in its ground state.

Homework Equations


##\psi _{0} =\left( \frac{mw}{\hbar\pi} \right )^\frac{1}{4} e^{-mwx^{2}/2\hbar} ##

The Attempt at a Solution


[/B]
##\Psi(x)=\psi_{0}e^{ik_{0}x}##
This wave function gives a <p> =##\hbar k_{0}##
Im confused whether this is the correct Fourier transform to do.
##c(k)=\frac{1}{2\pi}^{0.5}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{-ikx}\psi_{0}e^{ik_{0}x}dx##
And then solving for when the wavenumber of the ground state using E0=0.5* hbar * w.
Therefore
##c(k)^2 ## = Probability

Is this correct?
 
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You want to know the probability of a particular result of a measurement of energy.
 
Ah right. So would this be the probability of the system still being in the ground state?
##\left | \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \psi_{0} \psi_{0} e^{ik_{o}x}dx\right |^2=P##
 
Well done - left out a star, but ##\psi_0## is real so...
 
Thank you. Do you by any chance know any way to solve that integral by hand? I solved it on mathematica and it gave me ##P=e^\frac{-{k_{0}}^{2}\hbar}{4mw}## but I have no idea how to solve it by hand. Thanks again.
 
Hint: integrate by parts. (That's normal for quantum.)
You may be able to shortcut using ##\int_\infty \psi_0^2\; dx = 1##
 
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