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Problem with use of 'velocity' of charged particle in lorentz force eq

  1. Apr 29, 2013 #1
    if we assume a charge particle enters in a uniform magnetic field with velocity V w.r.t inertial frame as shown fig. then according to the situation shown there will be force acting on particle due to magnetic field (neglecting B field induced due to charged particle itself). But now if we observe this situation from a frame of reference which is moving with velocity V' in direction of particle's velocity with respect to inertial frame then velocity of particle observed in that frame will be V-V'. then force on particle due to magnetic field will be less (As calculated by lorentz force equation) than as calculated in inetial frame.

    what will be the right solution for this case?
     

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  3. Apr 30, 2013 #2
    Are you implying/specifying/assuming that the magnetic field is fixed in relation to both reference frames?
     
  4. Apr 30, 2013 #3

    Meir Achuz

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    There will now be an E field, becuse a Lorentz transformation of B produces an E field.
     
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