Problems from today calculus test

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The discussion revolves around two calculus problems from a recent exam that the original poster struggled to solve. The first problem involves evaluating a limit using Taylor series, where the poster initially failed but later received guidance on using approximations for logarithmic and sine functions to find the limit. The second problem concerns the convergence of an alternating series involving arctangent, with participants confirming that the series converges by applying the Alternating Series test. The poster realizes a mistake in their previous work, which contributed to their difficulties. Overall, the conversation highlights strategies for solving complex calculus problems and the importance of understanding convergence criteria.
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The exam is behind, but I'll have to repeat it at least once :-)

Here are two problems I wasn't able to solve:

<br /> \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} n^2 \left[ \log \left( 1 + \frac{1}{n} \right) - \sin \left( \frac{1}{n} \right) \right]<br />

I tried to solve it using Taylor, but it didn't help me...

And the second one, which I didn't even try, because I didn't catch it:

Convergence and absolute convergence of this:

<br /> \sum_{n = 1}^{+\infty} (-1)^{n} \arctan \left( \sqrt{n^2 + 1} - \sqrt{n^2 - 1} \right)<br />

How should I do that? IMO it would be sufficient that the arctan goes to 0 and then the sum would converge (Leibniz's rule)...

Thank you.
 
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log(1+\epsilon)\approx\epsilon-\frac{\epsilon^{2}}{2},\epsilon&lt;&lt;1
\sin\epsilon\approx\epsilon-\frac{\epsilon^{3}}{6},\epsilon&lt;&lt;1
Use these approximations to show that your first expression tends to -\frac{1}{2}
 
twoflower said:
<br /> \sum_{n = 1}^{+\infty} (-1)^{n} \arctan \left( \sqrt{n^2 + 1} - \sqrt{n^2 - 1} \right)<br />

How should I do that? IMO it would be sufficient that the arctan goes to 0 and then the sum would converge (Leibniz's rule)...

If \arctan \left( \sqrt{n^2 + 1} - \sqrt{n^2 - 1} \right) decreases monotonically to zero, then the series converges. (It does)
This is by the convergence criterium of Dirichlet, or a special case of it caled the Alternating Series test. It's probably the same rule you call Leibniz' rule. (He's already got so many rules with his name).
 
arildno said:
log(1+\epsilon)\approx\epsilon-\frac{\epsilon^{2}}{2},\epsilon&lt;&lt;1
\sin\epsilon\approx\epsilon-\frac{\epsilon^{3}}{6},\epsilon&lt;&lt;1
Use these approximations to show that your first expression tends to -\frac{1}{2}

Hmmm, I'm gallows-ripe. Now I found out why I wasn't able to solve this problem. In excercise book I have written the expansion of sin in a wrong way (without 'x' at the beginning)...
 
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twoflower said:
The exam is behind, but I'll have to repeat it at least once :-)

Here are two problems I wasn't able to solve:

<br /> \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} n^2 \left[ \log \left( 1 + \frac{1}{n} \right) - \sin \left( \frac{1}{n} \right) \right]<br />

I tried to solve it using Taylor, but it didn't help me...

For these type of problems I always find variable substitution helpful. I'll assume the log is log base e. Is that right?

Let a=1/n , so the limit becomes:

<br /> \lim_{a \rightarrow 0} \frac {\left[ \log \left( 1 + a \right) - \sin \left( a \right) \right]} {a^2}<br />

Use L'Hopital's rule twice, and you get the answer = -1/2
 
Hi...I found your first problem rather interesting because I encountered a "somewhat" similar problem (http://www.jee.iitb.ac.in/maths/images/MQNo_05.gif ).

Cheers
Vivek
 
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