Can a one-to-one mapping of a set into itself prove that the set is infinite?

In summary: The map f maps X into f[X], so it is onto f[X]. Therefore, |X|=|f[X]|, and since f[X] is a proper subset of X, this implies that X is infinite.In summary, the conversation is discussing the proof that if X is a set and f is a one-to-one mapping of X into itself such that f[X] is a proper subset of X, then X must be infinite. The reasoning involves assuming that X is finite and there is an f that maps all elements of X to a proper subset of X, which results in a contradiction. This is because a one-to-one mapping implies equal cardinalities, and for finite sets, this means the number of elements must also be equal
  • #1
cragar
2,552
3

Homework Statement


Let X be a set and let f be a one-to-one mapping of X into itself such that
[itex] f[X] \subset X [/itex] Then X is infinite.

The Attempt at a Solution


Let's assume for the sake of contradiction that X is finite and there is an f such that it maps all of the elements of X to a proper subset of X called Y. And this function also preserves the 1-to-1 mapping. If Y is a proper subset then |Y|<|X| and if X is finite then
Y is also finite, but there is a problem with the one to one mapping, if Y has less elements then X then there is no 1-to-1 mapping. So this is a contradiction of our original assumption therefore X is infinite.
 
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  • #2
The reasoning is correct in general, but perhaps somewhat informal. Formally, you could recall that a one-to-one mapping of two sets implies that the two sets have equal cardinality. And for finite sets, cardinality is simply the number of their elements.
 
  • #3
voko said:
The reasoning is correct in general, but perhaps somewhat informal. Formally, you could recall that a one-to-one mapping of two sets implies that the two sets have equal cardinality. And for finite sets, cardinality is simply the number of their elements.

I think you are thinking of mappings that are both one-to-one and onto. If the mapping is only one to one, then the cardinalities don't need to be equal -- there for example certainly is a one to one mapping from N to R, f(x) = x.
 
  • #4
clamtrox said:
I think you are thinking of mappings that are both one-to-one and onto. If the mapping is only one to one, then the cardinalities don't need to be equal -- there for example certainly is a one to one mapping from N to R, f(x) = x.

No, what I mean is that the cardinality of the image of X (where f is onto) must be equal to that of X. Invoking the finiteness of X completes the proof.
 
  • #5
voko said:
No, what I mean is that the cardinality of the image of X (where f is onto) must be equal to that of X. Invoking the finiteness of X completes the proof.
"
But nothing is said about f being "onto".
 
  • #6
HallsofIvy said:
"
But nothing is said about f being "onto".

Any map is "onto" its image.
 

1. What is an infinite subset?

An infinite subset is a subset of a larger set that contains an infinite number of elements. This means that the subset can continue on infinitely without ever reaching an endpoint or limit.

2. How can we prove that a subset is infinite?

One way to prove that a subset is infinite is by showing that it can be put into a one-to-one correspondence with a known infinite set, such as the set of natural numbers. This means that every element in the subset can be assigned a unique natural number, proving that the subset is also infinite.

3. What is the Cantor diagonalization method?

The Cantor diagonalization method is a mathematical proof technique used to show that certain sets are infinite. It involves constructing a new element that is not in the original set by manipulating the elements of the set in a diagonal pattern. If this new element is added to the set, the set will always remain infinite.

4. Can an infinite subset be the same size as its parent set?

Yes, it is possible for an infinite subset to be the same size as its parent set. This is known as a countably infinite subset, meaning that the elements in the subset can be put into a one-to-one correspondence with the natural numbers.

5. Are all subsets of an infinite set also infinite?

No, not all subsets of an infinite set are infinite. For example, the subset consisting of all even numbers from the set of natural numbers is infinite, but the subset consisting of all prime numbers from the set of natural numbers is not infinite.

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