Hey ksm100, that's no problem.
Rite well I believe I can see why your not completely happy with it. So all I have done is rearrange (i), so because of that if I can prove that the final inequality I presented is true, then any rearrangement of that inequality must also be true.
However, Ill propose another way of working this question, which should be more clear. so well start with (i) again:
<br />
\left(\frac{1}{3n+1}\right)\left(\frac{2(n+1)-1}{2(n+1)}\right)^2 \ \leq \ \frac{1}{3(n+1)+1} \ \ \ (i)<br />
which can be written as (without factoring the 4 in the denominator):
<br />
\frac{4n^2 + 4n + 1}{12n^3 + 28n^2 + 20n + 4} \ \leq \ \frac{1}{3n+4}<br />
Now for the LHS, let's multiply the numerator and denominator by 3n+4:
<br />
\frac{(3n + 4)(4n^2 + 4n + 1)}{(3n + 4)(12n^3 + 28n^2 + 20n + 4)} \ \leq \ \frac{1}{3n+4}<br />
expanding the top:
<br />
\frac{12n^3 + 28n^2 + 19n + 4}{(3n + 4)(12n^3 + 28n^2 + 20n + 4)} \ \leq \ \frac{1}{3n+4}<br />
Now notice that the numerator is almost the same as a factor in the denominator, and if we add this expression to the numerator (+n - n), then we get this:
<br />
\frac{12n^3 + 28n^2 + 19n + 4 + n - n}{(3n + 4)(12n^3 + 28n^2 + 20n + 4)} \ \leq \ \frac{1}{3n+4}<br />
<br />
\frac{12n^3 + 28n^2 + 20n + 4 - n}{(3n + 4)(12n^3 + 28n^2 + 20n + 4)} \ \leq \ \frac{1}{3n+4}<br />
now we haven't changed the value of the numerator in any way as n - n = 0, but we can now do this:
<br />
\frac{(12n^3 + 28n^2 + 20n + 4) - n}{(3n + 4)(12n^3 + 28n^2 + 20n + 4)} \ \leq \ \frac{1}{3n+4}<br />
<br />
\frac{12n^3 + 28n^2 + 20n + 4}{(3n + 4)(12n^3 + 28n^2 + 20n + 4)} \ - \ \frac{n}{(3n + 4)(12n^3 + 28n^2 + 20n + 4)} \ \leq \ \frac{1}{3n+4}<br />
dividing through the common factors of the first fraction (and factoring the second fraction expression to make it look nicer :D):
<br />
\frac{1}{(3n + 4)} \ - \ \frac{n}{4(3n + 4)(3n+1)(n+1)^2} \ \leq \ \frac{1}{3n+4} \ \ \ (ii)<br />
Now it should be evident that:
<br />
\frac{n}{4(3n + 4)(3n+1)(n+1)^2} > 0<br />
for all positive values of n, or the set of natural numbers as you originally stated. If its not then there are many ways you could prove the expression is indeed greater than 0, you could consider where the roots of the expression lie, and asymptotes and then consider the value of the function at higher values of n, or through some simple calculus, but I won't go into that here.
So that implies that the LHS of (ii) must be less than the RHS, which does show that (i) is indeed true, as:
<br />
\frac{1}{(3n + 4)} \ - \ \frac{n}{4(3n + 4)(3n+1)(n+1)^2} = \left(\frac{1}{3n+1}\right)\left(\frac{2(n+1)-1}{2(n+1)}\right)^2<br />
which is what we actually did through out. It might in fact be much better to show that those two are equal, and then use that as a substitution for the LHS of (i). Now for future thought what was the general technique employed here.
well consider the inequality:
<br />
A(n) \ \leq \ B(n)<br />
where A(n) and B(n) are some functions of n. We then attempt to put the the LHS into a form:
<br />
A(n) = B(n) - C(n)<br />
where C(n) is also a function of n such that every value of C(n) for our domain of n is greater than 0, so we have:
<br />
B(n) - C(n) \ \leq \ B(n)<br />
Which we can see due to the properties of C(n), that by inspection this inequality is indeed true.
Hopefully that all makes more sense to you now ksm100, have fun :D