Proof of orthogonality of associated Legendre polynomial

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving the orthogonality of associated Legendre polynomials, specifically the integral condition for the upper index \( m \). While the orthogonality condition for \( P^{m}_{l}(x) \) is established, the integral \( \int^{1}_{-1} P^{m}_{n}(x)P^{k}_{n}(x)\frac{dx}{(1-x^{2})} = 0 \) for \( m \neq k \) remains unproven. Participants seek hints or references to aid in this proof, emphasizing the need for a clear methodology and integration techniques.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of associated Legendre polynomials
  • Familiarity with integral calculus
  • Knowledge of orthogonality conditions in polynomial functions
  • Experience with mathematical proofs and techniques
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of associated Legendre polynomials in detail
  • Research integral calculus techniques for handling orthogonal polynomials
  • Explore online resources or textbooks that cover orthogonality proofs
  • Practice solving integrals involving \( \frac{1}{(1-x^{2})} \) and associated Legendre polynomials
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, physicists, and students studying polynomial theory, particularly those focusing on orthogonal functions and their applications in mathematical physics.

MCKim
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I want to prove orthogonality of associated Legendre polynomial.

In my textbook or many posts,
\int^{1}_{-1} P^{m}_{l}(x)P^{m}_{l'}(x)dx = 0 (l \neq l')
is already proved.

But, for upper index m,
\int^{1}_{-1} P^{m}_{n}(x)P^{k}_{n}(x)\frac{dx}{ ( 1-x^{2} ) } = 0 (m \neq k)
is not proved.

So, I tried to prove it using same method for the first case.
But I could not prove it.
Will anyone show me a hint or online reference?
 
Last edited:
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plug in the formulas and do the integral. what have you done so far?
 

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