MHB Proof of tan^(-1z) maclauren series

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The discussion focuses on proving the Maclaurin series expansion for arctangent, specifically that tan^(-1)z equals the series z - z^3/3 + z^5/5 - z^7/7 for |z|<1. A method is proposed that starts with the derivative of arctan, noting that its derivative is 1/(1 + x^2). By recognizing that 1/(1 + x^2) can be expressed as a geometric series, the series expansion is derived through integration. The integration of the series leads to the conclusion that arctan(x) can be represented as an infinite series with alternating signs. This proof effectively demonstrates the series representation for arctan within the specified domain.
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prove that
$$tan^{-1}z=z-z^3/3 + z^5/5 -z^7/7 + ...$$ for $$|z|<1$$

I know of a proof for this that takes the derivative, does long division, then integrates.

I would like a proof of this using the known Maclaurin series for e^z, cosz, or sinz.Is there a way to do this using these?

Thanks for any help!
 
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Stumped said:
prove that
$$tan^{-1}z=z-z^3/3 + z^5/5 -z^7/7 + ...$$ for $$|z|<1$$

I know of a proof for this that takes the derivative, does long division, then integrates.

I would like a proof of this using the known Maclaurin series for e^z, cosz, or sinz.Is there a way to do this using these?

Thanks for any help!

The easiest way is remember that $\displaystyle \begin{align*} \frac{d}{dx} \left[ \arctan{(x)} \right] = \frac{1}{1 + x^2} \end{align*}$.

Now notice $\displaystyle \begin{align*} \frac{1}{1 + x^2} = \frac{1}{1 - \left( -x^2 \right) } \end{align*}$, and if we recall that a geometric series has $\displaystyle \begin{align*} \sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} r^{n} = \frac{1}{1 - r} \end{align*}$ if $\displaystyle \begin{align*} |r| < 1 \end{align*}$, that means $\displaystyle \begin{align*} \frac{1}{1 - \left( - x ^2 \right) } = \sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} { \left( -x^2 \right) ^n } \end{align*}$ if $\displaystyle \begin{align*} \left| -x ^2 \right| < 1 \end{align*}$. Thus

$\displaystyle \begin{align*} \frac{1}{1 + x^2} &= \sum_{n = 0}^{\infty}{ \left( -1 \right) ^n x^{2n} } \textrm{ if } |x| < 1 \\ \int{ \frac{1}{1 + x^2} \, dx} &= \int{ \sum_{n = 0}^{\infty}{ \left( -1 \right) ^n x^{2n} }\,dx} \\ \arctan{(x)} + C &= \sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} \frac{ \left( -1 \right) ^n x^{2n + 1} }{2n + 1} \end{align*}$

and by substituting $\displaystyle \begin{align*} x = 0 \end{align*}$ it can be seen that $\displaystyle \begin{align*}C = 0 \end{align*}$.

Thus $\displaystyle \begin{align*} \arctan{(x)} = \sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} \frac{\left( -1 \right) ^n x^{2n + 1}}{2n + 1} \end{align*}$ if $\displaystyle \begin{align*} |x| < 1 \end{align*}$.
 
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