Hey guys, I was wondering is it possible to prove the statement , that "All men are created equal" through the proof method of induction. If so how?, if not, why? I just don't know where to begin. This course is a killer. I am attending the Univeristy of Toronto for my first year and the math is very different then highschool, and the first year Calc course is actually called Analysis I where we use Michael Spivaks book. It is different and so I am struggling but I don't want to give up! Thanks for the help!