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Proof of the equality of men through induction.

  1. Sep 25, 2005 #1
    Hey guys,

    I was wondering is it possible to prove the statement , that "All men are created equal" through the proof method of induction. If so how?, if not, why? I just don't know where to begin. This course is a killer. I am attending the Univeristy of Toronto for my first year and the math is very different then highschool, and the first year Calc course is actually called Analysis I where we use Michael Spivaks book. It is different and so I am struggling but I don't want to give up! Thanks for the help!
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Sep 25, 2005 #2
    Basically how would I approach this problem?
     
  4. Sep 25, 2005 #3
    Nothing eh?
     
  5. Sep 25, 2005 #4
    I'll give it a try...

    Statement: S(n) = The man n is created equal to man n-1 and the man 0 is created equal to man 0.

    Basis: S(0) = The man 0 is created equal to man 0. Correct.
    S(1) = The man 1 is created equal to man 0. Correct.

    Induction: S(n+1) = S(n)
    The man n+1 is created equal to man n. = The man n is created equal to man n-1.
    The man n+1 is created equal to man n. = The man n-1 is created equal to man n.
    The man (n+1+n-1) is created equal to man (n+n).
    The man 2n is created equal to man 2n. Correct.

    I don't think that is totally correct but hmm...its what I could come up with at the moment :smile:
     
  6. Sep 25, 2005 #5
    Hmm I think thats getting me somewhere though. Thanks cefarix, I appreciate it!
     
  7. Sep 25, 2005 #6
    Are you guys serious??!! Isn't the statement "all men are created equal" a philosophical statement rather then a mathematical one?? Surely there is no mathematical argument you can use to prove that just because the first k men were created equal, that this somehow emplied the (k+1)st man is equal to one of the 1st k?? What does it mean for men to be equal anyway???
    :confused: :confused:
     
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