# Proof of the equality of men through induction.

Hey guys,

I was wondering is it possible to prove the statement , that "All men are created equal" through the proof method of induction. If so how?, if not, why? I just don't know where to begin. This course is a killer. I am attending the Univeristy of Toronto for my first year and the math is very different then highschool, and the first year Calc course is actually called Analysis I where we use Michael Spivaks book. It is different and so I am struggling but I don't want to give up! Thanks for the help!

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Basically how would I approach this problem?

Nothing eh?

I'll give it a try...

Statement: S(n) = The man n is created equal to man n-1 and the man 0 is created equal to man 0.

Basis: S(0) = The man 0 is created equal to man 0. Correct.
S(1) = The man 1 is created equal to man 0. Correct.

Induction: S(n+1) = S(n)
The man n+1 is created equal to man n. = The man n is created equal to man n-1.
The man n+1 is created equal to man n. = The man n-1 is created equal to man n.
The man (n+1+n-1) is created equal to man (n+n).
The man 2n is created equal to man 2n. Correct.

I don't think that is totally correct but hmm...its what I could come up with at the moment Hmm I think thats getting me somewhere though. Thanks cefarix, I appreciate it!

Are you guys serious??!! Isn't the statement "all men are created equal" a philosophical statement rather then a mathematical one?? Surely there is no mathematical argument you can use to prove that just because the first k men were created equal, that this somehow emplied the (k+1)st man is equal to one of the 1st k?? What does it mean for men to be equal anyway???  