merrypark3
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p\bar{p} pair is a CP eigenstate?
As p and \bar{p} are fermions (the pair is assumed to be at S-state), the pair seems to be C's eigenstate with eigenvalue of -1.
As they have opposite intrinsic parity, the pair state seems to be P's eigenstate with eigenvalue -1. Then isn't it CP eigenstate with eigenvalue of 1?
But why the p\bar{p} pair cannot produce K_S or K_L but only \bar{K}^0?
As p and \bar{p} are fermions (the pair is assumed to be at S-state), the pair seems to be C's eigenstate with eigenvalue of -1.
As they have opposite intrinsic parity, the pair state seems to be P's eigenstate with eigenvalue -1. Then isn't it CP eigenstate with eigenvalue of 1?
But why the p\bar{p} pair cannot produce K_S or K_L but only \bar{K}^0?
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