Prove A < B without Calculation Tools

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the inequality \( A < B \) where \( A = 1001^{999} \) and \( B = 1000^{1000} \). Participants explore various mathematical approaches to establish this relationship without the use of calculation tools or logarithmic functions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant proposes using the binomial theorem to express \( 1001^{999} \) and compares it to \( 1000^{1000} \), suggesting that since each term in the expansion must be less than \( 1000^{999} \), it leads to the conclusion \( 1001^{999} < 1000^{1000} \).
  • Another participant questions the validity of comparing \( {999 \choose k} \) with \( 1000^k \) in the context of the binomial expansion, indicating potential issues with the approach.
  • A different participant suggests using the property that \( \left(1 + \frac{1}{n}\right)^n \) approaches \( e \) as \( n \) increases, proposing that this could be leveraged to show \( (n+1)^{n-1} < n^n \).
  • Several participants express agreement with the binomial theorem approach, indicating that their reasoning aligns with the initial proposal, while also clarifying their understanding of the comparisons made in the summation.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

There is no clear consensus on the validity of the various approaches presented. Some participants support the binomial theorem method, while others raise concerns about the comparisons being made within that framework. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the best method to prove the inequality.

Contextual Notes

Participants express uncertainty about the appropriateness of certain comparisons and the assumptions underlying their arguments, particularly regarding the use of \( 1000^k \) in the binomial expansion.

Albert1
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A=$1001^{999}$

B=$1000^{1000}$

Prove :A<B

(note :any calculation tools are not allowed ,also no use of log function)
 
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Re: prove A<B

I would use the binomial theorem to write:

$$1001^{999}=(1000+1)^{999}=\sum_{k=0}^{999}{999 \choose k}1000^{999-k}$$

Since we have 1000 terms, and each term would have to be equal to $1000^{999}$ in order for the summation to be equal to $1000^{1000}$, yet for $0<k$ we find:

$${999 \choose k}<1000^k$$

we may therefore conclude that:

$$1001^{999}<1000^{1000}$$
 
Re: prove A<B

Albert said:
A=$1001^{999}$

B=$1000^{1000}$

Prove :A<B

(note :any calculation tools are not allowed ,also no use of log function)
Are we allowed to use the fact that $\bigl(1+\frac1n\bigr)^n$ increases to $e$ as $n\to\infty$? If so, then $\bigl(1+\frac1n\bigr)^n < n+1$ whenever $n\geqslant2$. It follows that $(n+1)^n < (n+1)n^n$ and therefore $(n+1)^{n-1} < n^n.$
 
Re: prove A&lt;B

MarkFL said:
I would use the binomial theorem to write:

$$1001^{999}=(1000+1)^{999}=\sum_{k=0}^{999}{999 \choose k}1000^{999-k}$$

Since we have 1000 terms, and each term would have to be equal to $1000^{999}$ in order for the summation to be equal to $1000^{1000}$, yet for $0<k$ we find:

$${999 \choose k}<1000^k$$

we may therefore conclude that:

$$1001^{999}<1000^{1000}$$
as you are using $$1000^k$$under sigma i think you can't compare $${999 \choose k}$$ with
$$1000^k$$...:confused:

- - - Updated - - -

is it correct to use $$1000^K$$ under sigma
 
Re: prove A<B

I like Opalg 's method (my solution is similar to his)
 
Re: prove A&lt;B

mathworker said:
as you are using $$1000^k$$under sigma i think you can't compare $${999 \choose k}$$ with
$$1000^k$$...:confused:

- - - Updated - - -

is it correct to use $$1000^K$$ under sigma

My intended purpose was to recognize that for $0<k$, we have:

$${999 \choose k}1000^{999-k}<1000^{999}$$

and since:

$$\sum_{k=0}^{999}1000^{999}=1000\cdot1000^{999}=1000^{1000}$$

we must therefore have:

$$\sum_{k=0}^{999}{999 \choose k}1000^{999-k}=1001^{999}<1000^{1000}$$
 
Re: prove A&lt;B

MarkFL said:
My intended purpose was to recognize that for $0<k$, we have:

$${999 \choose k}1000^{999-k}<1000^{999}$$

and since:

$$\sum_{k=0}^{999}1000^{999}=1000\cdot1000^{999}=1000^{1000}$$

we must therefore have:

$$\sum_{k=0}^{999}{999 \choose k}1000^{999-k}=1001^{999}<1000^{1000}$$

okay i got it, you are comparing each term to $$1000^999$$...THANK YOU
 

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