MHB Prove A < B without Calculation Tools

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that \( A = 1001^{999} < B = 1000^{1000} \) without using calculation tools or logarithmic functions. Participants utilize the binomial theorem to express \( A \) as \( (1000 + 1)^{999} \) and analyze the terms of the resulting summation. The conclusion is reached by demonstrating that each term in the expansion is less than \( 1000^{999} \), leading to the inequality \( 1001^{999} < 1000^{1000} \).

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A=$1001^{999}$

B=$1000^{1000}$

Prove :A<B

(note :any calculation tools are not allowed ,also no use of log function)
 
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Re: prove A<B

I would use the binomial theorem to write:

$$1001^{999}=(1000+1)^{999}=\sum_{k=0}^{999}{999 \choose k}1000^{999-k}$$

Since we have 1000 terms, and each term would have to be equal to $1000^{999}$ in order for the summation to be equal to $1000^{1000}$, yet for $0<k$ we find:

$${999 \choose k}<1000^k$$

we may therefore conclude that:

$$1001^{999}<1000^{1000}$$
 
Re: prove A<B

Albert said:
A=$1001^{999}$

B=$1000^{1000}$

Prove :A<B

(note :any calculation tools are not allowed ,also no use of log function)
Are we allowed to use the fact that $\bigl(1+\frac1n\bigr)^n$ increases to $e$ as $n\to\infty$? If so, then $\bigl(1+\frac1n\bigr)^n < n+1$ whenever $n\geqslant2$. It follows that $(n+1)^n < (n+1)n^n$ and therefore $(n+1)^{n-1} < n^n.$
 
Re: prove A&lt;B

MarkFL said:
I would use the binomial theorem to write:

$$1001^{999}=(1000+1)^{999}=\sum_{k=0}^{999}{999 \choose k}1000^{999-k}$$

Since we have 1000 terms, and each term would have to be equal to $1000^{999}$ in order for the summation to be equal to $1000^{1000}$, yet for $0<k$ we find:

$${999 \choose k}<1000^k$$

we may therefore conclude that:

$$1001^{999}<1000^{1000}$$
as you are using $$1000^k$$under sigma i think you can't compare $${999 \choose k}$$ with
$$1000^k$$...:confused:

- - - Updated - - -

is it correct to use $$1000^K$$ under sigma
 
Re: prove A<B

I like Opalg 's method (my solution is similar to his)
 
Re: prove A&lt;B

mathworker said:
as you are using $$1000^k$$under sigma i think you can't compare $${999 \choose k}$$ with
$$1000^k$$...:confused:

- - - Updated - - -

is it correct to use $$1000^K$$ under sigma

My intended purpose was to recognize that for $0<k$, we have:

$${999 \choose k}1000^{999-k}<1000^{999}$$

and since:

$$\sum_{k=0}^{999}1000^{999}=1000\cdot1000^{999}=1000^{1000}$$

we must therefore have:

$$\sum_{k=0}^{999}{999 \choose k}1000^{999-k}=1001^{999}<1000^{1000}$$
 
Re: prove A&lt;B

MarkFL said:
My intended purpose was to recognize that for $0<k$, we have:

$${999 \choose k}1000^{999-k}<1000^{999}$$

and since:

$$\sum_{k=0}^{999}1000^{999}=1000\cdot1000^{999}=1000^{1000}$$

we must therefore have:

$$\sum_{k=0}^{999}{999 \choose k}1000^{999-k}=1001^{999}<1000^{1000}$$

okay i got it, you are comparing each term to $$1000^999$$...THANK YOU
 

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