Prove REPLACEMENT Theorem in Propositional Logic

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the REPLACEMENT theorem in propositional logic, specifically examining the expression (P → Q) ∨ ¬(P → Q) and its equivalence to (P → Q) ∨ ¬(¬P ∨ Q). The original poster struggles to validate this equivalence using a truth table, claiming it does not yield consistent values. A participant clarifies that the left expression is a tautology, while also noting that the implication P → Q can be simplified to ¬P ∨ Q. The conversation emphasizes the importance of understanding logical equivalences and truth table constructions in propositional logic.
RyozKidz
Messages
25
Reaction score
0
The book which i read for improving my logic sense~
There is a theorem called REPLACEMENT ..

( P \rightarrow Q ) \vee \neg ( P \rightarrow Q)
where (P\rightarrow Q) is the second occurence of ( P \rightarrow Q)

But what if the replace the second occurrence with \neg P\vee Q!
And i try to check with the truth table it does not gv me the values !
Help~~
 
Physics news on Phys.org
RyozKidz said:
The book which i read for improving my logic sense~
There is a theorem called REPLACEMENT ..

( P \rightarrow Q ) \vee \neg ( P \rightarrow Q)
where (P\rightarrow Q) is the second occurence of ( P \rightarrow Q)

But what if the replace the second occurrence with \neg P\vee Q!
And i try to check with the truth table it does not gv me the values !
Help~~

I am not absolutely sure what you mean by the truth table not giving you the values. Are you saying that

(P \rightarrow Q) \vee \neg (P \rightarrow Q) \text{ and } (P \rightarrow Q) \vee \neg (\neg P \vee Q)

are not appearing to be logically equivalent?

--Elucidus
 
Elucidus said:
I am not absolutely sure what you mean by the truth table not giving you the values. Are you saying that

(P \rightarrow Q) \vee \neg (P \rightarrow Q) \text{ and } (P \rightarrow Q) \vee \neg (\neg P \vee Q)

are not appearing to be logically equivalent?

--Elucidus

yup yup~~coz i can't prove this is tvalidity by using truth table..~~
 
Here is the side-by-side truth table of the two expressions. The final values of each is in boldface.

\begin{array}{c|c|cccc|cccc}<br /> P &amp; Q &amp; (P \rightarrow Q) &amp; \vee &amp; \neg &amp; (P \rightarrow Q) &amp; (P \rightarrow Q) &amp; \vee &amp; \neg &amp; (\neg P \vee Q) \\<br /> \hline<br /> T &amp; T &amp; T &amp; \bold{T} &amp; F &amp; T &amp; T &amp; \bold{T} &amp; F &amp; T \\<br /> T &amp; F &amp; F &amp; \bold{T} &amp; T &amp; F &amp; F &amp; \bold{T} &amp; T &amp; F \\<br /> F &amp; T &amp; T &amp; \bold{T} &amp; F &amp; T &amp; T &amp; \bold{T} &amp; F &amp; T \\<br /> F &amp; F &amp; T &amp; \bold{T} &amp; F &amp; T &amp; T &amp; \bold{T} &amp; F &amp; T<br /> \end{array}

Additionally, any expression of the form (A \vee \neg A) (like the one on the left) is a tautology. Also the implication (P \rightarrow Q) is reducible to (\neg P \vee Q).

--Elucidus
 
I'm taking a look at intuitionistic propositional logic (IPL). Basically it exclude Double Negation Elimination (DNE) from the set of axiom schemas replacing it with Ex falso quodlibet: ⊥ → p for any proposition p (including both atomic and composite propositions). In IPL, for instance, the Law of Excluded Middle (LEM) p ∨ ¬p is no longer a theorem. My question: aside from the logic formal perspective, is IPL supposed to model/address some specific "kind of world" ? Thanks.
I was reading a Bachelor thesis on Peano Arithmetic (PA). PA has the following axioms (not including the induction schema): $$\begin{align} & (A1) ~~~~ \forall x \neg (x + 1 = 0) \nonumber \\ & (A2) ~~~~ \forall xy (x + 1 =y + 1 \to x = y) \nonumber \\ & (A3) ~~~~ \forall x (x + 0 = x) \nonumber \\ & (A4) ~~~~ \forall xy (x + (y +1) = (x + y ) + 1) \nonumber \\ & (A5) ~~~~ \forall x (x \cdot 0 = 0) \nonumber \\ & (A6) ~~~~ \forall xy (x \cdot (y + 1) = (x \cdot y) + x) \nonumber...
Back
Top