solakis
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Can we prove :(A\cap B)' = A^'\cup B^' ,without using De Morgan's??
phinds said:you can if you accept a Karnaugh map or a Venn diagram as proof
solakis said:no ,i mean an ordinary proof.
HallsofIvy said:Just use the basic definitions:
If x\in \left(A\cap B\right)', then x is NOT inA\cap B when means it is either not in A or not in B..
phinds said:well, try googling "proof of DeMorgan's Theorem" (or Law as it seems to be called these days)
solakis said:I am afraid i could not find a proof ,apart from one using truth tables
HallsofIvy said:Just use the basic definitions:
If x\in \left(A\cap B\right)', then x is NOT inA\cap B when means it is either not in A or not in B. If it is not in A then it is in A' and therefore in A'\cup B'. If it is not in B then it is in B' and therefore in A'\cup B'. Thus, \left(A\cap B\right)'\subset A'\cup B'.
The other way: if x \in A' \cup B' it is in either A' or in B'. If it is in A', ...
solakis said:That is using De Morgan's. But i asked for a proof without using De Morgans