Proving Abelian p-Group: gnhn = (gh)n

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Homework Statement



How would I prove that gnhn = (gh)n, for g,h \inG where G is a p-group, and all its elements have order p?

The Attempt at a Solution



My aim is to prove this in order to prove that G is Abelian, but I don't want to prove it using centres. I've supposed that gnhn = (gh)m for some m, and now I'm trying to prove that m must be congruent to n modulo p, as this is the only way that (gh)m = (gh)n since gh has order p. And this is where I strike a wall, so to speak. Is there a better way to prove that G is Abelian, if this isn't good enough?

Thanks!
 
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Think: generator.
 
As in...gh generates a cyclic group?
 
Well, yes, but don't think about gh. You know that if g is in G, then g has order p, correct?
 
That is, can you think of a way to write any element of G in terms of g?
 
Yeah, what you're trying to prove is false. A counterexample is given by

(\mathbb{Z}_3\rtimes \mathbb{Z}_3)\times \mathbb{Z}_3

All (non-identity) elements have order 3 and the group is non-abelian.
 
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