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There was this question in my analysis exam today. I have a feeling it should be easy but no one I've asked knew how to do it.
We associate to the sequence \{a_n\} the sequence defined by
b_n=\frac{a_1+a_2+...+a_n}{n}
Show that if \{a_n\} converges towards a, then \{b_n\} converges towards a.
I realized that
b_n=\frac{\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n}{n}
or even
b_n=\frac{\sum_{k=1}^{n} a_k}{\sum_{k=1}^{n} 1}
but all my attemps involving epsilon-delta, convergence tests, Cauchy convergence "caracterisation", etc. failed. Please tell me how to do this. Thanks a lot.
We associate to the sequence \{a_n\} the sequence defined by
b_n=\frac{a_1+a_2+...+a_n}{n}
Show that if \{a_n\} converges towards a, then \{b_n\} converges towards a.
I realized that
b_n=\frac{\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n}{n}
or even
b_n=\frac{\sum_{k=1}^{n} a_k}{\sum_{k=1}^{n} 1}
but all my attemps involving epsilon-delta, convergence tests, Cauchy convergence "caracterisation", etc. failed. Please tell me how to do this. Thanks a lot.