Proving Injectivity of Surjective Ring Homomorphism in Noetherian Rings

  • Thread starter Thread starter ZioX
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Rings
ZioX
Messages
370
Reaction score
0
Suppose A is a Noetherian ring, phi:A->A any surjective ring homomorphism. Show that phi is also injective.

Also, if all the prime ideals of a ring A are finitely generated then is A noetherian?

I'm pretty sure it is. I figure I can take all of the ideals that are not finitely generated and find a maximal prime ideal that contains these ideals.

I've just started reading a book on commutative algebra with the hopes of moving on to algebraic geometry.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
ZioX said:
Suppose A is a Noetherian ring, phi:A->A any surjective ring homomorphism. Show that phi is also injective.
That's surely not true!
 
ZioX said:
Suppose A is a Noetherian ring, phi:A->A any surjective ring homomorphism. Show that phi is also injective.

Also, if all the prime ideals of a ring A are finitely generated then is A noetherian?

I'm pretty sure it is. I figure I can take all of the ideals that are not finitely generated and find a maximal prime ideal that contains these ideals.

I've just started reading a book on commutative algebra with the hopes of moving on to algebraic geometry.

If all prime ideals are finitely generated then the ring is noetherian, theorem of Cohen.
 
Hurkyl said:
That's surely not true!

Consider the chain of ideals:

\ker\phi\subset\ker\phi^2\subset\ker\phi^3\subset\cdots

And the fact that \phi(A)=A.
 
Also, if all the prime ideals of a ring A are finitely generated then is A noetherian?

I'm pretty sure it is. I figure I can take all of the ideals that are not finitely generated and find a maximal prime ideal that contains these ideals.
I'm not sure if I'm reading what you're saying correctly, but what you want to do is take all of the ideals that are not finitely generated, get a maximal such ideal (Zorn), and then show it's prime.

Come to think of it -- this is an exercise in Eisenbud, a book that might be very suitable for what you want. (Maybe you already aknow this, and this is where this problem is from!?)
 
Last edited:
Hurkyl said:
That's surely not true!
Well, what I saw is surely not true. But now that I look again, I can see clear as day that you didn't write phi:A->B. :frown:
 
Prove $$\int\limits_0^{\sqrt2/4}\frac{1}{\sqrt{x-x^2}}\arcsin\sqrt{\frac{(x-1)\left(x-1+x\sqrt{9-16x}\right)}{1-2x}} \, \mathrm dx = \frac{\pi^2}{8}.$$ Let $$I = \int\limits_0^{\sqrt 2 / 4}\frac{1}{\sqrt{x-x^2}}\arcsin\sqrt{\frac{(x-1)\left(x-1+x\sqrt{9-16x}\right)}{1-2x}} \, \mathrm dx. \tag{1}$$ The representation integral of ##\arcsin## is $$\arcsin u = \int\limits_{0}^{1} \frac{\mathrm dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}}, \qquad 0 \leqslant u \leqslant 1.$$ Plugging identity above into ##(1)## with ##u...
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...

Similar threads

Replies
14
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
1K
Replies
3
Views
485
Replies
6
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
7
Views
7K
Replies
6
Views
3K
Back
Top