Proving Markov's Inequality (Probability)

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving Markov's Inequality, specifically the statement that if g(x) ≥ 0, then for any constants c > 0 and r > 0, the inequality P(g(X) ≥ c) ≤ E((g(X))^r) / c^r holds. The participant references the probability density function (pdf) f(x) of X and attempts to derive the proof using integrals. They express difficulty in adapting existing proofs to include the exponent r and transitioning from P(g(x) ≥ c) to the integral form. The discussion highlights the need for clarity in handling the relationship between g(X) and its pdf.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Markov's Inequality in probability theory.
  • Familiarity with probability density functions (pdfs) and their properties.
  • Knowledge of Stieltjes integrals for cases where g(x) does not have a pdf.
  • Basic concepts of expected value and integration in probability.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of Markov's Inequality with specific examples involving different functions g(x).
  • Learn about Stieltjes integrals and their applications in probability theory.
  • Explore the relationship between random variables and their transformations, particularly in the context of inequalities.
  • Review advanced probability topics, including the use of moments and their implications in inequalities.
USEFUL FOR

Students and researchers in probability theory, mathematicians focusing on inequalities, and anyone interested in the applications of Markov's Inequality in statistical analysis.

TelusPig
Messages
15
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



If [itex]g(x)\ge 0[/itex], then for any constant ##c>0, r>0##:

[itex]P(g(X)\ge c)\le \frac{E((g(X))^r)}{c^r}[/itex]

Homework Equations



I know that [itex]E(g(X))=\int_0^\infty g(x)f(x)dx[/itex] if [itex]g(x)\ge 0[/itex] where ##f(x)## is the pdf of ##X##.

The Attempt at a Solution



I tried following a similar proof to what I found here (on page 2: http://www.stat.cmu.edu/~larry/=stat705/Lecture2.pdf).

I'm really stuck on this. I've tried to look on the Internet for a proof, but the inequalities I find involve X, not g(X) and there isn't any exponent ##r##. I tried doing something similar by replacing X with g(X) but it doesn't quite work out. I still need an exponent ##r## and I don't know how the last step would get me to write something like [itex]c^r P(g(x)\ge c)[/itex]
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Suppose [itex]g(x)[/itex] has a pdf. Let's call the pdf [itex]f[/itex]. Then
$$P(g(x) \geq c) = \int_c^\infty f(y) dy$$
In this integral, we have [itex]y \geq c[/itex]. If [itex]r > 0[/itex] and [itex]c > 0[/itex], then this implies [itex]y^r \geq c^r[/itex]. This in turn is equivalent to [itex]1 \leq y^r/c^r[/itex]. What's the natural next step?

For the more general case in which [itex]g(x)[/itex] does not necessarily admit a pdf, the proof should be similar, except you would use a Stieltjes integral.
 
Last edited:

Similar threads

  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
1K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K