Proving Metric Space: (X,\bar\rho) is Positive Definite

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Homework Statement



Prove that if [itex](X,\rho)[/itex]is a metric space then so is [itex](X,\bar\rho)[/itex], where
[itex] \bar\rho:X \times X \Rightarrow R_{0}^{+}, (x,y) \Rightarrow \frac{\rho(x,y)}{1+\rho(x,y)}.[/itex]


Homework Equations



I'm trying to prove the axiom that a metric space is positive definite.


The Attempt at a Solution



because given [itex](X,\rho)[/itex] is a metric space is it enough to say that [itex](X,\bar\rho)[/itex], cannot be [itex]< 0[/itex] because [itex](X,\rho)[/itex] cannot be [itex]< 0[/itex] ? ie the limit of [itex](X,\bar\rho)[/itex] is 0 as [itex](X,\rho)[/itex] tends to zero ?
 
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Yes, if x is not y, then [itex] \bar\rho[/itex] is greater than 0 since [itex] \rho[/itex] is greater than 0 for this case.
If x=y, then it is clear that [itex] \bar\rho[/itex] is 0 as you have [itex] \rho(x,x)<br /> [/itex] = 0 in the numerator.
 
Thanks for your help.

I have also got to prove the following
Let [itex](Y, \theta)[/itex] be a metric space. Prove the following.
[itex]f : X \rightarrow Y[/itex] is continuous with respect to [itex]\bar\rho[/itex] if and only if it is continuous with respect to [itex]\rho[/itex]


I know I have to show that the inverse of Open sets in Y are open in X and visa versa how ever I'm not sure how to represent the open sets in [itex]\bar\rho[/itex]

ie if I was proving [itex](X,\rho)[/itex] and [itex](Y,\theta)[/itex]

I would show that for each [itex]G \subseteq Y[/itex] that [itex]f^{-1}(G)[/itex]is an open [itex]\subseteq X[/itex] whenever [itex]G[/itex] isan open subset of [itex]Y[/itex]




As the metric space [itex]\bar\rho[/itex] uses the metric [itex]\rho[/itex] how to I incorporate that into the proof ?
 
Let f be continuous wrt [itex] \rho[/itex] and let G be open in Y. Then, as you pointed out, [itex] f^{-1}(G) [/itex] is open in X. Let a be a point in [itex] f^{-1}(G) [/itex] = A. Then, A is open in X implies that neighborhoods of a are in A (under the rho metric). Write out what these neighborhoods look like. They look like {y | ||a-y||[itex] \rho[/itex] < e }, and these neighborhoods are in X. Now what do the neighborhoods look like under the [itex] \bar\rho[/itex] metric and how do they relate to the usual neighborhoods?
 
Does this look alright ?
I've tried to use Open balls of radius [itex]\delta[/itex] and [itex]\psi[/itex]



So I have three metric spaces

[itex](X,\rho)[/itex]
[itex](X,\bar\rho)[/itex]
and
[itex](Y, \theta)[/itex]
and a function
[itex]f : X \rightarrow Y[/itex]
which is continuous wrt [itex](X,\rho)[/itex]

So given [itex]f : X \rightarrow Y[/itex]continous wrt [itex]\rho[/itex].

Take a neighbourhood [itex]B_{\rho}(a,\delta) = {x \in X \mid \rho(x,a) < \delta }[/itex]

Then for each [itex]\epsilon > 0[/itex] there is an [itex]\delta > 0[/itex]


Such that we have [itex]B_{\rho}(a,\delta) \leq \theta(f(x),f(a)) < \epsilon[/itex] As [itex]f[/itex] is continuous



To show that [itex]f : X \rightarrow Y[/itex] is continuous wrt [itex]\bar\rho[/itex] we need to to find a [itex]B_{\rho}(b,\psi) \subset B_{\rho}(a,\delta)[/itex]

So we can take [itex]\psi = \delta - \rho(b,a)[/itex]

if
[itex]\rho(x,b) < \psi[/itex]
then
[itex]\rho(x,a) \leq \rho(x,b)+\rho(x,a)[/itex]
[itex]\rho(x,a) < \psi+ \delta - \psi = \delta[/itex]

So we can know show that:
[itex]f : X \rightarrow Y[/itex] is continuous wrt [itex]\bar\rho[/itex]

[itex]0 < B_{\bar\rho}(x,\psi) < \rho(f(x),f(b)) \leq B_{\rho}(a,\delta) \leq \theta(f(x),f(a)) < \epsilon[/itex]