Proving T=H+q*h in a Catenary Spanned Cable

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In the discussion about proving the equation T = H + q*h for a catenary spanned cable, participants clarify the roles of tension and weight in static equilibrium. The cable, assumed to have no friction, experiences tension T at the top and H at the bottom, with q representing weight per unit length and h the height of the cable. There is confusion regarding the behavior of a roller compared to a pulley, with emphasis on the absence of friction allowing for simplifications in the analysis. The conversation also touches on the differences between cables and beams, noting that beams cannot be treated the same way due to their resistance to bending. Ultimately, the focus remains on understanding the unique properties of cables in this context.
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Homework Statement


A cable is spanned between two points at the left touching the ground and at the right smoothly spanned over a large roller. Assume that there's no friction present. The tension left at the bottom is H and the tension T at the top is such that T>H. The cable has a weight per unit length q and is spanned over an height h and is in static equibrilium.

Prove that:

T = H +q*h

http://img220.imageshack.us/img220/537/96775335.png

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution


I thought that the roller would give reaction forces perpendicular to the cable but other students told me that it works like a pulley and since there's the assumption that there's no friction I can disregard these forces, right? But I still don't know how to prove that formula.
 
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Hint:

Calculus and Analytic Geometry by Thomas...
 
Can you guide my in the right direction with the info of the book? Or give me the right chapter of the book?
 
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Chapter 10, third edition. The title of the chapter is Hyperbolic Functions.
 
Got it but it probably doesn't work if it's a beam instead of a cable, right? What happens with the expression if it is a beam?
 
How do you "smoothly span" a beam over a roller? A beam is a different animal.
 
I mean no friction suppose that at the ends there's no shear force or bending moment (or at least negliglible) is the formula still valid?
 
The reason why the cable pulls on both ends is because it cannot support itself. It has no resistance to bending stress - actually a cable does to a slight extent. If a beam could be bent over the frictionless pulleys such that it is horizontal where it touches them, it would remain there if undisturbed.

Think of a wheelbarrow with a load in it and a good set of bearings on its wheel. If you raise it, it does not want to run away from you. Yet, it is tilted upward.
 

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