Proving that for nilpotent A, A+I is invertible

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Suppose A is nilpotent, i.e. A^k=0, k>0. Show that A+I is invertible.

Here's my go at it... although I'm unsure about step marked with asterisks... is it ok? I'm not sure how to show that it's true for sure.

Contrapositive: Suppose A+I isn't invertible. Then (A+I)X =0 has a non-zero solution, say X = X_0.
Then

(A+I)X_0=0

AX_0+X_0=0

A^kX_0 +A^{k-1}X_0=0

If A^k=0 then A^{k-1}X_0=0... but X_0 is not a solution of A^{k-1}X=0.************

Hence, A must not nilpotent, QED

Thanks
 
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Identity said:
but X_0 is not a solution of A^{k-1}X=0.************

Why?
 
Ok... I was bluffing. But I don't know how else to proceed!

I just assumed that since X_0 was the solution of one equation it couldn't solve another different equation.
 
It helps to gather some intuition from the one dimensional case here.

What is the inverse of (1+x) when x is small (x is a real number)?
 
If you mean multiplicative inverse isn't it

\frac{1}{1+x} = 1-x+x^2-...

Can this be used for matrices too...?

EDIT: Heh, I guess it can, thanks office_shredder
 
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Of course you have to be worried about convergence, but in the nilpotent case that's not a big deal
 
I am a little slow, so could someone please humor me: just using 1/(1 + x) = 1 - x + x^2 - ...
and seeing x as A and 1 as I, isn't it apparent that this series converges since it is geometric and can be easily calculated? At what point does the nilpotency of A matter, and how can you use it in proof using the mentioned series?
 
For some integer power k, Ak = 0 (the zero matrix).

1/(1 + x) in the reals corresponds to (I + A)-1.
 
dmatador said:
and seeing x as A and 1 as I, isn't it apparent that this series converges since it is geometric and can be easily calculated? At what point does the nilpotency of A matter, and how can you use it in proof using the mentioned series?

If A is just a real number and A=2, the series doesn't converge. The mere fact it is geometric isn't enough; you need your matrix to somehow be "small enough". What exactly small enough is is a lot less obvious for matrices than for real numbers, but if a matrix is nilpotent it qualifies
 
  • #10
(A+I)v=0

Av=-v

A^2v=v

\dots

A^kv=(-)^{k+1}v=0

v=0

v=0 is the only vector in \textrm{Ker}(A+I)

A+I is invertible.
 
  • #11
vigvig said:
Exp(X) = X+Id

Its not true. If X^k=0

e^X=Id+A+A^2/2+\dots A^{k-1}/(k-1)!
 
  • #12
Petr Mugver said:
Its not true. If X^k=0

e^X=Id+A+A^2/2+\dots A^{k-1}/(k-1)!

First, X^k = 0 is equivalent to being nilpotent. Second, you may want to replace all your As by Xs, but you are right. Sometimes you do get Exp(X)=X+id but not always. I forgot you could have something like a Heisenberg matrix where exponentiation puts ones on the diagonal but does alter one entry.
 
  • #13
Suppose (I+A) is not invertible. Then there exists a vector v such that (I+A)v = 0.

Then v=-Av. Then -1 is an eigenvalue which is a contradiction since A is nilpotent i.e. all eigenvalues are zero.
 
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