*melinda*
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The question says:
Let A be a set and x a number.
Show that x is a limit point of A if and only if there exists a sequence x_1 , x_2 , ... of distinct points in A that converge to x.
Now I know from the if and only if statement that I need to prove this thing both ways.
So, the proof in one direction (I think) would be that I have a limit point x\in A, and would need to construct a sequence that converges to x.
Why are these things always easier said than done
?
One of the definitions in my book states:
x is a limit point of A if given any error 1/n there exists a point y_n of A not equal to x satisfying |y_n -x|<1/n or, equivalently, if every neighborhood of x contains a point of A not equal to x.
I feel like I can somehow use this definition, or at least the definition of Cauchy sequences to help with my proof. Only trouble is, I don't know what to do with what I have.
help?
Let A be a set and x a number.
Show that x is a limit point of A if and only if there exists a sequence x_1 , x_2 , ... of distinct points in A that converge to x.
Now I know from the if and only if statement that I need to prove this thing both ways.
So, the proof in one direction (I think) would be that I have a limit point x\in A, and would need to construct a sequence that converges to x.
Why are these things always easier said than done

One of the definitions in my book states:
x is a limit point of A if given any error 1/n there exists a point y_n of A not equal to x satisfying |y_n -x|<1/n or, equivalently, if every neighborhood of x contains a point of A not equal to x.
I feel like I can somehow use this definition, or at least the definition of Cauchy sequences to help with my proof. Only trouble is, I don't know what to do with what I have.
help?