Punkyc7
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So the question was, Let x > 0.
Prove that x^{n} = \sum \frac{x!}{x!-k!} S(n, k).
Where the sum goes from k = 1 to n and S(n, k) is th Stirling numbers.
I believe I have proven what I needed to, but my question is why does x have to be greater than 0? Couldn't we define a function that maps [n] to {-x, ..., 1}.
Prove that x^{n} = \sum \frac{x!}{x!-k!} S(n, k).
Where the sum goes from k = 1 to n and S(n, k) is th Stirling numbers.
I believe I have proven what I needed to, but my question is why does x have to be greater than 0? Couldn't we define a function that maps [n] to {-x, ..., 1}.
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