- #1
LarryS
Gold Member
- 345
- 33
In non-relativistic QM, given a Hilbert Space with a Hermitian operator A and a generic wave function
Ψ. The operator A has an orthogonal eigenbasis, {ai}.
I have often read that the orthogonality of such eigenfunctions is an indication of the separateness or distinctiveness of the associated eigenvalues, i.e. that orthogonality in QM means separate and independent.
But what if the probability distribution for Ψ is peaked at one value causing most of the eigenvalues to be clustered in a very narrow range? How could one then say, from a practical point-of-view, that the eigenvalues are separate or distinct, even though the eigenfunctions themselves remain orthogonal?
Thanks in advance
Ψ. The operator A has an orthogonal eigenbasis, {ai}.
I have often read that the orthogonality of such eigenfunctions is an indication of the separateness or distinctiveness of the associated eigenvalues, i.e. that orthogonality in QM means separate and independent.
But what if the probability distribution for Ψ is peaked at one value causing most of the eigenvalues to be clustered in a very narrow range? How could one then say, from a practical point-of-view, that the eigenvalues are separate or distinct, even though the eigenfunctions themselves remain orthogonal?
Thanks in advance
Last edited: