QM question, angular momentum operator and eigen functions

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indie452
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For the operator L(z) = -i[STRIKE]h[/STRIKE][d/d(phi)]

phi = azimuthal angle

1) write the general form of the eigenfunctions and the eigenvalues.
2) a particle has azimuthal wave function PHI = A*cos(phi)
what are the possible results of a measurement of the observable L(z) and what is the probability of each.

this is a past paper qu I am doing for revision
i think 1) is = A*R(r)*sin(theta)exp[i*phi] and the eigenvalue is [STRIKE]h[/STRIKE]
 
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indie452 said:
i think 1) is = A*R(r)*sin(theta)exp[i*phi] and the eigenvalue is [STRIKE]h[/STRIKE]

That's certainly an eigenfunction, but it isn't the most general form. What is the eigenvalue equation (expanded in the position basis) for the operator [itex]L_z[/itex]? What do you get if you assume that the eigenfunctions are separable?
 
The question only ask for the eigenfunction of the operator L(z)
So you should not write out one hydrogen wavefunction which may count as WRONG answer!

Solve for [tex]L_{z}\Phi(\phi)=m\Phi(\phi)[/tex] and you will get the answer. Think about it
 
i still don't really understand what i need to do...
when you say [tex] L_{z}\Phi(\phi)=m\Phi(\phi)[/tex] is that you saying m is the eigenvalue? i thought that it was hbar.

im just confused cause we didnt try to find the eigenfunctions in lectures.
 
how about this?

L(z)[tex]\Phi[/tex] = m[tex]\hbar[/tex]*exp[im[tex]\phi[/tex]]
-i[tex]\hbar[/tex]*d/d[tex]\phi[/tex]*[tex]\Phi[/tex] = m[tex]\hbar[/tex]*exp[im[tex]\phi[/tex]]

so if [tex]\phi[/tex] = Aexp[im[tex]\phi[/tex]]
normalised A = 1/[tex]\sqrt{}2\pi[/tex]
 
Last edited:
indie452 said:
how about this?

L(z)[tex]\Phi[/tex] = m[tex]\hbar[/tex]*exp[im[tex]\phi[/tex]]
-i[tex]\hbar[/tex]*d/d[tex]\phi[/tex]*[tex]\Phi[/tex] = m[tex]\hbar[/tex]*exp[im[tex]\phi[/tex]]

so if [tex]\phi[/tex] = Aexp[im[tex]\phi[/tex]]
normalised A = 1/[tex]\sqrt{}2\pi[/tex]

That doesn't prove that [itex]Ae^{im\phi}[/itex] is the only eigenfunction. Assume that the state [itex]\psi(r,\theta,\phi)[/itex] is an eigenfunction of the operator [itex]L_z[/itex]. Furthermore, assume that [itex]\psi(r,\theta,\phi)[/itex] is separable (i.e. [itex]\psi(r,\theta,\phi)=f(r)g(\theta)h(\phi)[/itex]). Now apply the operator [itex]L_z[/itex] to that eigenfunction and solve the differential equation you get.
 
okay i solved the partial diff. eqn. and got th same value for PHI,
 
does this eigen value answer the question?
 
i got the eigen function being

[tex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}[/tex]eim[tex]\phi[/tex]
 
Then no, that is not the general form of the eigenfunction. Your eigenfunction can also have some radial or polar angle dependence, can it not?