- #1
DiracNotationKillsMe
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Heads up, I only recently got into quantum mechanics and don't feel like I got a solid grasp on the material yet.
1. Homework Statement
Given is the wave function of a free particle in one dimension:
\begin{equation}
\psi(x,0) = \left( \frac{2}{\pi a^2} \right)^{1/4} e^{i k_0 x} e^{-x^2/a^2}
\end{equation}
I already calculated the Fourier-transform (necessary in another part):
\begin{equation}
g(k) = ( 2 \pi )^{-1/4} \sqrt{a} e^{-(k_0 - k)^2 a^2/4}
\end{equation}
Now I am tasked with calculating the time evolution ψ(x,t).
We were given hints by tutors for using the time-operator:
\begin{equation}
|\psi (x, t)> = e^{-i / \hbar \hat{H} t } | \psi(x,0) >
\end{equation}
Thus, we would only need to find the eigenvalue of the hamiltonian:
\begin{equation}
\hat{H} | \psi(x,0)> = \lambda | \psi(x,0) >
\end{equation}
However, against my intuition of just putting in my original wave function and calculating away ( which yields a λ depending on x ), they told us to use the Fourier-transform of g(k) instead:
\begin{equation}
\hat{H} | \psi(x,0)> = \hat{H} \frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi}} \int g(k) e^{ikx} dk
\end{equation}
I tried calculating it the way they told us to, but the resulting integral seems endless and doesn't come to a head after hours of trying. Even if i were to finish it, it seems to me that the final term would still depend on x. I am also not that skilled in calculating eigenvalues, so allow me to ask: would it be fine if the eigenvalue for the Hamiltonian depends on x ( doesn't seem like it to me )? I'd also appreciate someone explaining to me why I'd have to use the double transformed function instead of the original one.
Thanks in advance.
1. Homework Statement
Given is the wave function of a free particle in one dimension:
\begin{equation}
\psi(x,0) = \left( \frac{2}{\pi a^2} \right)^{1/4} e^{i k_0 x} e^{-x^2/a^2}
\end{equation}
I already calculated the Fourier-transform (necessary in another part):
\begin{equation}
g(k) = ( 2 \pi )^{-1/4} \sqrt{a} e^{-(k_0 - k)^2 a^2/4}
\end{equation}
Now I am tasked with calculating the time evolution ψ(x,t).
Homework Equations
We were given hints by tutors for using the time-operator:
\begin{equation}
|\psi (x, t)> = e^{-i / \hbar \hat{H} t } | \psi(x,0) >
\end{equation}
Thus, we would only need to find the eigenvalue of the hamiltonian:
\begin{equation}
\hat{H} | \psi(x,0)> = \lambda | \psi(x,0) >
\end{equation}
However, against my intuition of just putting in my original wave function and calculating away ( which yields a λ depending on x ), they told us to use the Fourier-transform of g(k) instead:
\begin{equation}
\hat{H} | \psi(x,0)> = \hat{H} \frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi}} \int g(k) e^{ikx} dk
\end{equation}
The Attempt at a Solution
I tried calculating it the way they told us to, but the resulting integral seems endless and doesn't come to a head after hours of trying. Even if i were to finish it, it seems to me that the final term would still depend on x. I am also not that skilled in calculating eigenvalues, so allow me to ask: would it be fine if the eigenvalue for the Hamiltonian depends on x ( doesn't seem like it to me )? I'd also appreciate someone explaining to me why I'd have to use the double transformed function instead of the original one.
Thanks in advance.