Quantized Dirac Field Interacting with a Classical Potential

In summary: So, the first term in the expansion is just tt^{\dagger} and the trace of this is just the sum over the diagonal elements, which is just the sum over p. So, if I understand correctly, this is the quantity\sum_{\boldsymbol{p}}\langle\boldsymbol{p}|t|\boldsymbol{p}\ranglewhich is what they call W^{(1)} in the book?
  • #1
maverick280857
1,789
4
Hi,

I'm working through Section 4-3 of Itzykzon and Zuber's QFT textbook, but I am a bit stuck while trying to understand some of the quantities and equations.

First of all, what is this "one-body scattering operator [itex]\mathcal{F}(A)[/itex]"? It is defined (eqn 4-89, page 188) as

[tex]\mathcal{F}(A) = e\gamma^{\mu}A_{\mu}(x) + e\gamma^{\mu}A_{\mu}(x)\frac{1}{\gamma^{\mu}P_{\mu}-m+i\epsilon}\mathcal{F}(A)[/tex]

What does this operator physically represent? For most of this section, it seems to be a trick to go through with the calculation. But the pair production probability in eqn 4-99 (page 191) is expressed in terms of an operator [itex]t[/itex] which is in turn defined in terms of the Hermitian adjoint of [itex]\mathcal{F}[/itex], in equation 4-98 (page 191).

Secondly, given a particular [itex]A^{\mu}(x)[/itex], I suppose I have to find [itex]\mathcal{F}[/itex] somehow. How do I do this? The defining expression above is recursive, and the only two situations for which the authors have actually gone through with the calculation are the lowest order emission rate and the constant field emission rate.

Thirdly, the 'lowest order' emission probability is linear in [itex]\alpha[/itex] (the coupling constant) [equation 4-105, page 192]. But so is the 'exact' emission probability for a constant electric field (equation 4-118, page 195). So, if I understand correctly, the higher order contributions vanish for a constant electric field. Without actually computing the rate, can this be justified physically?

I want to compute higher order corrections to 4-105. So, I need to figure out what [itex]\mathcal{F}(A)[/itex] really is, and how I can obtain it for an arbitrary [itex]A^{\mu}(x)[/itex].

Would appreciate your thoughts...

Thanks in advance.
 
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  • #2
maverick280857 said:
What does this operator physically represent?
It's a one-particle-in one-particle-out scattering amplitude, with incoming and outgoing spinor factors removed, and then Fourier transformed to position space. If you generate an infinite series by recursion, the [itex]n[/itex]th term corresponds to a Feynman diagram with [itex]n[/itex] interactions with the external field.

maverick280857 said:
Secondly, given a particular [itex]A^{\mu}(x)[/itex], I suppose I have to find [itex]\mathcal{F}[/itex] somehow. How do I do this?
No one knows. Only special cases have been solved.

maverick280857 said:
Thirdly, the 'lowest order' emission probability is linear in [itex]\alpha[/itex] (the coupling constant) [equation 4-105, page 192]. But so is the 'exact' emission probability for a constant electric field (equation 4-118, page 195).
I don't have I&Z in front of me, but there is certainly a [itex]1/\alpha[/itex] (or [itex]1/e^2[/itex]) in the exponent of the exponential factor of the exact solution.
 
  • #3
Thanks for your reply Avodyne.

Avodyne said:
No one knows. Only special cases have been solved.

Okay, so given a general time dependent (and space independent) field [itex]A^{\mu}(x)[/itex] which corresponds to a time-dependent electric field, how does one go about finding the production rate from this method, if there is no known way to write down the scattering operator?

The total pair production probability is given in I&Z by

[tex]W_{tot} = \int d^{4}x\,w(x) = \int d^{3}p\ln(1+tt^{\dagger})[/tex]

where [itex]t[/itex] is an operator defined by

[tex]\langle\boldsymbol{p},a|t|\boldsymbol{p}',b\rangle = 2\pi\sum_{\alpha,\beta}\frac{m}{\sqrt{\omega_P}\sqrt{\omega_P'}}\bar{u}_{\alpha}^{(a)}(p)\langle p,\alpha|\bar{\mathcal{F}}|p',\beta\rangle v_{\beta}^{(b)}(-p')[/tex]

They write down the emission rate to lowest order apparently by evaluating the trace in the definition for [itex]W_{tot}[/itex], to get

[tex]W^{(1)} = -Tr(e\gamma^\mu A_\mu \rho^{(+)}e\gamma^\nu A_\nu \rho^{(-)})[/tex]

where

[tex]\rho^{(\pm)}(P) \equiv 2\pi(\gamma^\mu P_\mu + m)\theta(\pm P^0)\delta(P^2-m^2)[/tex]

I don't understand how the lowest order contribution is obtained. Can you explain this? I want to try and compute higher order corrections. By compute, of course I mean that I want to be able to write them down as integrals involving |E|^2-|B|^2 as done for the lowest order case.

I don't have I&Z in front of me, but there is certainly a [itex]1/\alpha[/itex] (or [itex]1/e^2[/itex]) in the exponent of the exponential factor of the exact solution.

You're right of course...the production probability p.u. time p.u. volume is

[tex]w = \frac{\alpha E^2}{\pi^2}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2}\exp\left(-\frac{n\pi m^2}{|eE|}\right)[/tex]

for a constant electric field. So, the exponential does involve [itex]1/e[/itex] or equivalently, [itex]1/\sqrt{\alpha}[/itex].
 
  • #4
maverick280857 said:
how does one go about finding the production rate from this method, if there is no known way to write down the scattering operator?
Um, you can't, unless you come up with some new method.
maverick280857 said:
I don't understand how the lowest order contribution is obtained. Can you explain this? I want to try and compute higher order corrections.
They expanded the log, [itex]\ln(1+tt^\dagger)=tt^\dagger-{1\over2}tt^\dagger tt^\dagger + \ldots[/itex], and kept only the first term. I don't know how feasible it would be to compute the next term in the general case.
 
  • #5
Avodyne said:
They expanded the log, [itex]\ln(1+tt^\dagger)=tt^\dagger-{1\over2}tt^\dagger tt^\dagger + \ldots[/itex], and kept only the first term. I don't know how feasible it would be to compute the next term in the general case.

How does [itex]ln(1+tt^{\dagger})[/itex] give

[tex]-Tr(e\gamma^\mu A_\mu \rho^{(+)}e\gamma^\nu A_\nu \rho^{(-)})[/tex]

? This part isn't obvious to me..
 
Last edited:
  • #6
maverick280857 said:
How does [itex]ln(1+tt^{\dagger})[/itex] give

[tex]-Tr(e\gamma^\mu A_\mu \rho^{(+)}e\gamma^\nu A_\nu \rho^{(-)})[/tex]

? This part isn't obvious to me..

Okay, I think I got it.
 

1. What is a quantized Dirac field?

A quantized Dirac field is a mathematical model that describes the behavior of particles with spin 1/2, such as electrons. It is based on the Dirac equation, which combines special relativity and quantum mechanics, and allows for the prediction of the spin of a particle.

2. How does a quantized Dirac field interact with a classical potential?

The interaction between a quantized Dirac field and a classical potential occurs through the exchange of virtual particles. The quantized field produces these virtual particles, which then interact with the potential, resulting in a modification of the field. This interaction can be described using perturbation theory.

3. What is the significance of the quantized Dirac field interacting with a classical potential?

The interaction between a quantized Dirac field and a classical potential is important in understanding the behavior of particles at the quantum level. It allows for the prediction of particle properties, such as spin and energy levels, and is crucial in the development of quantum field theory. It also has practical applications in fields such as condensed matter physics and particle physics.

4. How is the quantized Dirac field interacting with a classical potential related to the Standard Model of particle physics?

The Standard Model of particle physics is a theory that describes the fundamental particles and forces in the universe. The quantized Dirac field interacting with a classical potential is a key component of the Standard Model, as it explains the behavior of fermions (particles with half-integer spin) and their interactions with other particles.

5. Are there any experimental evidence for the quantized Dirac field interacting with a classical potential?

Yes, there is strong experimental evidence for the quantized Dirac field interacting with a classical potential. This can be seen in various experiments, such as the Lamb shift in atomic spectra and the anomalous magnetic dipole moment of the electron. These experiments have confirmed the predictions of the quantized Dirac field theory and further validate its use in understanding the behavior of particles at the quantum level.

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