Quantum Mechanics - quick question about probability

imagemania
Messages
24
Reaction score
0
Quantum - probability in a state
I have an eigenvalue (d) and i need to find the probability of it in a state k.

What is the equation?
<k|d|k> ?

I have spent some thought on this and it seems to simple.

thanks
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Note that <k|d|k>=d<k|k>=d.

I'm not sure what the exact question is. I'm guessing that what you have in mind is that the state preparation procedure has put the system in state |k>, that you're going to measure an observable D, and that d is an eigenvalue of D with a 1-dimensional eigenspace. Then the probability that the result of the D measurement will be d is ##|\langle d|k\rangle|^2##, where |d> is a normalized eigenstate of D with eigenvalue d.

<k|D|k> is the average value you will get if you do this measurement on many identically prepared systems.
 
If you have a state |k> then you want to take the inner product with the eigenbra <d|

If you expand |k> in d eigens then
|k> = <d|k>|d>
(Sum over d)

So <d|k> is the expansion coefficient for |d> or how much |d> is in |k> eg, it is the 'probability' of |k> as being in the eigenstate |d>

Taking the inner product with your chosen <d'| gives

<d'|k> = <d|k><d'|d>
<d'|k> = <d'|k>
(Sum over d)

This happens since the eigenstates are orthogonal (I'm assuming they're orthogonal)
The probability is then |<d'|k>|^2

Do you understand what I have done here?
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top