Question about an Eqn. in Shankar - wave function probability

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the probability associated with wave function collapse in quantum mechanics, specifically using the projection operator ##\mathbb{P}_{\omega}##. It establishes that the probability of measuring an eigenvalue ##\omega## is given by ##P(\omega) \propto |\langle \omega | \psi \rangle|^2##, where ##|\psi\rangle## is the initial state. The explicit form of the projection operator is defined as ##\mathbb{P}_{\omega} = |\omega\rangle \langle \omega |##, and the probability is calculated using Born's postulate, leading to the conclusion that ##P(\omega|\psi) = \langle \psi|\hat{P}_{\omega}|\psi \rangle = \sum_{\alpha} |\psi(\omega,\alpha)|^2##.

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Jacob Nie
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Homework Statement
The section is about the probability of obtaining a certain ##\omega## upon measurement of operator ##\Omega.## And here it is dealing specifically with the case of a degenerate ##\Omega.##

It says: In general, one can replace in Postulate III
$$P(\omega)\propto \langle \psi | \mathbb{P}_{\omega}|\psi\rangle $$
where ##\mathbb{P}_{\omega}## is the projection operator for the eigenspace with eigenvalue ##\omega.##

(Postulate III was ##P(\omega)\propto |\langle \omega | \psi \rangle |^2.##)
Relevant Equations
n/a
I don't see why it is not ##P(\omega)\propto |\langle \psi | \mathbb{P}_{\omega}|\psi\rangle |^2.## After all, the wavefunction ends up collapsing from ##|\psi\rangle## to ##\mathbb{P}_{\omega}|\psi\rangle.##
 
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Jacob Nie said:
It says: In general, one can replace in Postulate III
$$P(\omega)\propto \langle \psi | \mathbb{P}_{\omega}|\psi\rangle $$
where ##\mathbb{P}_{\omega}## is the projection operator for the eigenspace with eigenvalue ##\omega.##

I don't see why it is not ##P(\omega)\propto |\langle \psi | \mathbb{P}_{\omega}|\psi\rangle |^2.## After all, the wavefunction ends up collapsing from ##|\psi\rangle## to ##\mathbb{P}_{\omega}|\psi\rangle.##
What is the explicit form of ##\mathbb{P}_{\omega}## when ##\omega## is not degenerate? When this ##\mathbb{P}_{\omega}## is used in ##\left< \psi \right| \mathbb{P}_{\omega} \left|\psi \right> ##, what results?
 
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George Jones said:
What is the explicit form of ##\mathbb{P}_{\omega}## when ##\omega## is not degenerate? When this ##\mathbb{P}_{\omega}## is used in ##\left< \psi \right| \mathbb{P}_{\omega} \left|\psi \right> ##, what results?

The explicit form would be ##\mathbb{P}_{\omega} = |\omega\rangle \langle \omega | \psi \rangle.## So, ##\langle \psi | \mathbb{P}_{\omega}| \psi \rangle = \langle \psi | \omega \rangle \langle \omega | \psi \rangle = |\langle \omega | \psi \rangle |^2.##

Thank you very much for the helpful hint.
 
Now, a projection operator is an operator, not a vector. Let ##\Omega## be an observable, ##\hat{\Omega}## its representing self-adjoint operator. For an eigenvalue ##\omega## there may be several linearly independent eigenvectors ("degeneracy"). They form a subvector space of the Hilbert space, ##\text{Eig}(\hat{\Omega},\omega)##, and you always can choose an orthonormal basis ##|\omega,\alpha \rangle##. For simplicity I assume the ##\alpha## are just discrete labels and we deal with true normalizable eigenvectors. The generalization if you have continuous generalized eigenvectors "normalized to a ##\delta## distribution" is straight forward.

Then the projection operator to the subspace ##\text{Eig}(\hat{\Omega},\omega)## is
$$\hat{P}_{\omega} = \sum_{\alpha} |\omega,\alpha \rangle \langle \omega,\alpha|.$$
Then the probability to find the value ##\omega## when measuring ##\Omega## when the system is prepared in a pure state represented by a normalized state vector ##|\psi \rangle## is, according to Born's postulate,
$$P(\omega|\psi)=\langle \psi|\hat{P}_{\omega}|\psi \rangle=\sum_{\alpha} \langle \psi|\omega,\alpha \rangle \langle \omega,\alpha|\psi \rangle = \sum_{\alpha} |\psi(\omega,\alpha)|^2.$$
 

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