If you have purely a coordinate transformation whose Jacobian equals 1, and your Lagrangian density has no explicit coordinate dependence (just a dependence on the fields and their first derivatives), then is it true that the transformation is a symmetry transformation?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

It looks like it is, that under these conditions the action is unchanged. I just want some verification.

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# Question about noether's theorem

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