yungman
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Suppose a closed loop with constant current around the loop. The loop is in a uniform constant B field. The force is
\vec F=I\left (\oint_c d\vec l\right ) \times \vec B.
Being a closed loop \oint_c d\vec l=0. So there is no force acting on the loop.
BUT at the same time, we know there is torque, so there is force! How is that possible?
\vec F=I\left (\oint_c d\vec l\right ) \times \vec B.
Being a closed loop \oint_c d\vec l=0. So there is no force acting on the loop.
BUT at the same time, we know there is torque, so there is force! How is that possible?