I am dealing with the classic problem of a potential barrier of finite width, with a particle tunneling through, in the case of E < V.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

I am to calculate the transmission/reflection coefficients, and we first start off with the wavefunctions for the three regions.

Before the barrier, we have Aexp(ikx) + Bexp(-ikx)

In the barrier, we have Cexp(k1x) + Dexp(-k1x)

After the barrier, we have Fexp(kx).

My only question about this is where the i term comes from. It is probably a very simple answer but I want to know exactly its reason before I go on past this point. In the case of E > V, the i term appears in all the exponentials. Thank you.

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# Homework Help: Quick Potential Barrier tunnelling question

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