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Novocaine
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I am dealing with the classic problem of a potential barrier of finite width, with a particle tunneling through, in the case of E < V.
I am to calculate the transmission/reflection coefficients, and we first start off with the wavefunctions for the three regions.
Before the barrier, we have Aexp(ikx) + Bexp(-ikx)
In the barrier, we have Cexp(k1x) + Dexp(-k1x)
After the barrier, we have Fexp(kx).
My only question about this is where the i term comes from. It is probably a very simple answer but I want to know exactly its reason before I go on past this point. In the case of E > V, the i term appears in all the exponentials. Thank you.
I am to calculate the transmission/reflection coefficients, and we first start off with the wavefunctions for the three regions.
Before the barrier, we have Aexp(ikx) + Bexp(-ikx)
In the barrier, we have Cexp(k1x) + Dexp(-k1x)
After the barrier, we have Fexp(kx).
My only question about this is where the i term comes from. It is probably a very simple answer but I want to know exactly its reason before I go on past this point. In the case of E > V, the i term appears in all the exponentials. Thank you.