Random walk on integers with two absorbing boundaries

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The discussion focuses on calculating the probability distribution of hitting one of two absorbing boundaries in a simple random walk. The problem involves a particle starting at zero, which can move up or down with specified probabilities until it reaches either boundary. Participants share methods for determining the probability of hitting a specific boundary and the expected time to reach it, referencing classic texts like William Feller's work. The conversation also clarifies the definitions of key variables and the recurrence relations used in the calculations. Overall, the thread provides valuable insights into solving this standard problem in probability theory.
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Hi - I am trying to find the probability of hitting one of two boundaries in a simple random walk (I describe the problem precisely below). Actually, my main concern is to find the probability distribution over time to hit either one of two boundaries. I think that this is a very standard problem, i.e. time to ruin in the Gambler's ruin problem, and while I am able to find material describing the probability of hitting one, or other, boundary, I have not been successful in finding any material describing the probability distribution over hitting times. Could anyone help?

many thanks,
Mark

The problem is as follows:
A particle x begins at time t=0, with a value of 0. At each time interval, t=1,2,... it is incremented by 1 with probability p, and decremented by 1 with probability q=1-p. There are two boundaries a>0 and b<0, such that when the particle hits either one it stops. I would like to know 1) the probability that the particle hits a before b and 2) assuming it has hit a (or b), the probability distribution over the time taken to hit it.
 
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In a classic text by William Feller "An Introduction to Probability Theory and its Application", this problem is discussed in full detail.
 
Mathman, many thanks! I checked out the book you suggested. It is great. By the way, I also found a book by Cox and Miller on Stochastic processes that is very helpful too.
thank you,
Mark
 
If you want a method for doing these sorts of questions, use the one step method. Define your random walk to be absorbing, i.e. X_n=a implies X_m=a for all m>n. Then define x_i=\mathbb{P}_i(T_a&lt;\infty) where T_a=\inf\{n:X_n=a\}. So obvious if it hits b then T_a is infinite. The one step method is
x_i=p_{i,i+1}x_{i+1}+p_{i,i-1}x_{i-1}
The p s are your transitional probabilities. The equation is intuitive if you think about it.

Now you get a recurrence relation and you need to solve it for x_i, you may find the next identity useful
\displaystyle x_i=x_0+\sum_{n=0}^{i-1}(x_{n+1}-x_n)

As for the expectation its almost exactly the same, let y_i=\mathbb{E}_i[T_a], then you get the relation
y_i=1+p_{i,i+1}y_{i+1}+p_{i,i-1}y_{i-1}
You get a 1 there because every time you move to a new state you increase the time by one.

Hope this helps.
 
Hi Focus. Thanks for the advice. Very helpful indeed.
But what exactly does x_i mean? I presume it is the probability of a particle hitting barrier "a" having started at position i. I am inferring that on the basis of the difference equation. I presume that everything messier when we ask of the probability of hitting barrier "a" at time "t", for t> 1.
-mark
 
Yes the definition of them may be confusing but it is the probability that you hit a in a finite time given that you start at i. I should have also mention your boundary conditions are x_a=1\quad x_b=0.

If you want to know the \mathbb{P}_i(T_a=k) then you have to condition your way backwards
\mathbb{P}_i(T_a=k)=\mathbb{P}_i(X_{k-1}=a-1)p_{a-1,a}=\mathbb{P}_i(X_{k-2}=a-2)p_{a-2,a-1}p_{a-1,a}=p_{a-2,a-1}p_{a-1,a}(\mathbb{P}_i(X_{k-3}=a-1)p_{a-1,a-2}+\mathbb{P}_i(X_{k-3}=a-3)p_{a-3,a-2})=...

So you look at where you are and you say, how could I get here? Well I could have moved one up or one down. And do the same again and again, then a pattern emerges.
 
Hi Focus, that is very helpful. thanks again.
-m
 
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