Recurrence relation for an integral equation

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The discussion revolves around deriving a recurrence relation for the integral I_n defined as I_n = ∫(1/(x^2 + a^2)^n)dx. Participants share methods for calculating I_1 and I_2 using trigonometric substitution, yielding specific results for these integrals. The main challenge is to express I_{n+1} in terms of I_n, with attempts including integration by parts, which initially led to confusion. A proposed solution involves manipulating the integral and applying integration by parts effectively, which ultimately proves successful. The conversation highlights the complexities of integral equations and the importance of correct substitution and integration techniques.
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Hi guys, would appreciate any help with this problem. It's from a graduate school entrance examination which I am practicing.

problem statement

When n is a natural number, the indefinite integral I_n is defined as

I_n=\int\frac{1}{(x^2+a^2)^n}dx

Here, a is a constant real number, and not equal to zero. Answer the following questions.

1. Express I_{n+1} as a recurrence equation with I_n.
2. Derive I_1 and I_2

where I'm at
I can solve part 2 relatively easily by using the trigonometric substitution x=a \tan\theta which gives the result (feel free to ask for working if you don't believe me):

I_n=\frac{1}{a^{2n-1}}\int(\cos\theta)^{2n-2}d\theta

or:

I_{n+1}=\frac{1}{a^{2n+1}}\int(\cos\theta)^{2n} d\theta

these are fairly easy to solve for fixed values of n using basic integration and backwards substitutions such as \tan\theta=(x/a) etc, giving:

I_1=\arctan(x/a)/a

I_2=\arctan(x/a)/(2a^3)+\frac{x}{2a^2(x^2+a^2)}

but I don't know how to generalize to the final recurrence equation.

attempted solution
I tried to solve the original equation using integration by parts by writing:

I_{n+1}=\int\frac{1}{(x^2+a^2)^n}\frac{1}{(x^2+a^2)}dx

then setting:
u=\frac{1}{(x^2+a^2)}, v'=\frac{1}{(x^2+a^2)^n}


u'=\frac{-2x}{(x^2+a^2)^2}, v=I_n

this gives:
I_{n+1}=\frac{I_n}{(x^2+a^2)}+\int\frac{I_n 2x}{(x^2+a^2)^2}dx

but this doesn't agree with the calculations from above with fixed n, so it must be wrong. (I presume v=I_n is invalid for some reason?).

Unfortunately I don't really have any ideas on where to go from here...?
 
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Try the following: (I haven't checked it out myself, so it may be bogus.)

\displaystyle I_n=\int\frac{1}{(x^2+a^2)^n}dx
\displaystyle =\int\frac{x^2+a^2}{(x^2+a^2)^{(n+1)}}dx

\displaystyle =a^2I_{n+1}+\int (x)\,\frac{x}{(x^2+a^2)^{(n+1)}}dx

Now try integration by parts: u = x, \displaystyle dv=\frac{x}{(x^2+a^2)^{(n+1)}}dx​
 
Last edited:
That is very clever, it worked great thank you!
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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