The sound intensity formula is given by: dE/dT*dS. So the variables are energy, related to the amplitude of the wave, area, related to wavefronts distribution on space, and time. So many times I don't see any reference about the relation between frequency and sound intensity, but if time is a variable, so shouldn't it be important to know how much time the energy of a wave does take to pass through an area? If so, is it correct to assert that the G note, having the same amplitude (and consequently being as loud) of A note, has therefore more sound intensity? Please correct any conceptual mistake i may have done and elucidate the topic for me.