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I heard that renormalisability has something to do with the spin. A quantum field theory of particles with spin 0 or 1/2 is renormalisable; where with spin 1 is originally unrenormalisable, however, since we have gauge theory for the spin 1 particles, the symmetry cures the problem, and the field theory becomes renormalisable in the case of spin = 1.

In this perspective, a field theory of spin 2 particles is unrenormalizable, like the quantum gravity.

But I haven't read about this from the renormalisation sections of some books, like Ryder or Peskin.

Is this related to the proof provided by 't Hooft?

Or anyone can provide a correct and clear picture or explanation?

Many thanks!

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# Renormalisability and spin?

Can you offer guidance or do you also need help?

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