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Renormalisability and spin?

  1. Jul 23, 2008 #1
    Dear all,

    I heard that renormalisability has something to do with the spin. A quantum field theory of particles with spin 0 or 1/2 is renormalisable; where with spin 1 is originally unrenormalisable, however, since we have gauge theory for the spin 1 particles, the symmetry cures the problem, and the field theory becomes renormalisable in the case of spin = 1.
    In this perspective, a field theory of spin 2 particles is unrenormalizable, like the quantum gravity.

    But I haven't read about this from the renormalisation sections of some books, like Ryder or Peskin.
    Is this related to the proof provided by 't Hooft?
    Or anyone can provide a correct and clear picture or explanation?
    Many thanks!
  2. jcsd
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