Rewriting sum of iterated integrals (order of integration)

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The discussion focuses on rewriting a sum of iterated integrals by reversing the order of integration and evaluating them. The original integrals are analyzed, revealing different domains, which raises concerns about combining them. A solution is proposed that involves moving the outer integral outside and recognizing that the inner integrals cover contiguous intervals. This leads to the conclusion that the integrals can be combined into a single iterated integral over the union of the intervals. The participants express appreciation for the clarification and insight provided.
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Homework Statement



Rewrite the given sum of iterated integrals as a single iterated integral by reversing the order of integration, and evaluate.

$$\int_0^1 \int_0^x sin x dy dx + \int_1^2 \int_0^{2 - x} sin x dy dx$$

Homework Equations



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The Attempt at a Solution



I drew the domains of each integral and saw that they appeared different, but I proceeded anyway. Changing the order of integration of each integral, I arrived at

$$\int_0^1 \int_y^1 sin x dx dy + \int_0^1 \int_1^{2-y} sin x dx dy$$

which doesn't appear to help me. This made me further suspicious about how I could possibly combine two integrals over two different domains. Any hints?
 
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Assuming your result in (3) is correct:

your outer integral is the same for both terms ... so you can move it outside of the two inner integrals. But the inner integrals have the same integrands, and cover intervals (y,1) and (1,2-y) ... so they are contiguous.

That means they are equivalent to the same integrand over the union of the intervals: (y,2-y).
 
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UltrafastPED said:
Assuming your result in (3) is correct:

your outer integral is the same for both terms ... so you can move it outside of the two inner integrals. But the inner integrals have the same integrands, and cover intervals (y,1) and (1,2-y) ... so they are contiguous.

That means they are equivalent to the same integrand over the union of the intervals: (y,2-y).

Oh wow, I never would have thought of that! That makes complete sense, though! Thank you so much, I really do appreciate it.
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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