Rolling Down Ramp - Question on Friction

AI Thread Summary
In the discussion about a cylinder rolling down a ramp with a rope pulling it upward, the direction of friction is clarified to always act up the ramp. This friction is necessary to provide the torque required for the cylinder to roll correctly without slipping. The confusion arises from the simultaneous presence of the cylinder rolling down the ramp while friction still points upward. Understanding the mechanics of rolling motion helps clarify that friction opposes the relative motion at the contact point. Overall, the relationship between rolling motion, friction, and torque is essential for visualizing the scenario accurately.
TORQ12
Messages
1
Reaction score
0
You have a cylinder rolling down a ramp, without slipping. There is a rope wrapped around it (pulling up) with tension T.

The direction of friction is always up the ramp. How do I picture this? From the math, I know that it must be true. But I cannot really imagine it.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Well you know the cylinder rolls down the ramp. What kind of torque would be necessary for the cylinder to roll the correct way? If that was provided by a force at the place of contact between the cylinder and the ramp, where would that force point?
 
You say that I know the cylinder rolls down the ramp. That is not necessarily true--I understand that case (I think). But friction also points up the ramp if the cylinder rolls down it. It's the fact that it's up in both cases that confuses me.
 
Hi there, im studying nanoscience at the university in Basel. Today I looked at the topic of intertial and non-inertial reference frames and the existence of fictitious forces. I understand that you call forces real in physics if they appear in interplay. Meaning that a force is real when there is the "actio" partner to the "reactio" partner. If this condition is not satisfied the force is not real. I also understand that if you specifically look at non-inertial reference frames you can...
I have recently been really interested in the derivation of Hamiltons Principle. On my research I found that with the term ##m \cdot \frac{d}{dt} (\frac{dr}{dt} \cdot \delta r) = 0## (1) one may derivate ##\delta \int (T - V) dt = 0## (2). The derivation itself I understood quiet good, but what I don't understand is where the equation (1) came from, because in my research it was just given and not derived from anywhere. Does anybody know where (1) comes from or why from it the...
Back
Top