- #1
fog37
- 1,397
- 95
Hello,
Static friction implies no relative (maybe just instantaneously) motion between the two objects that are in contact. Rolling friction pertains to rolling objects and develops due to the asymmetric deformation of the surface over which the body rolls (if the deformation was symmetric, the rolling object would regain the potential energy stored in the deformation).
I think a cylindrical object, previously set into rolling on a different surface, could freely roll on "perfect" ice (coeff. of static friction equal to zero) but still suffer from rolling friction, correct? What I am saying is that it is essentially possible to roll without static friction...
That implies that rolling friction and static friction are frictional forces essentially decoupled from each other.
But I guess, in real life, when a wheel rolls on a real surface, it experience both rolling friction and static friction. Is that correct? Or is that true only when the wheel is rolling and accelerating?
thank you!
Static friction implies no relative (maybe just instantaneously) motion between the two objects that are in contact. Rolling friction pertains to rolling objects and develops due to the asymmetric deformation of the surface over which the body rolls (if the deformation was symmetric, the rolling object would regain the potential energy stored in the deformation).
I think a cylindrical object, previously set into rolling on a different surface, could freely roll on "perfect" ice (coeff. of static friction equal to zero) but still suffer from rolling friction, correct? What I am saying is that it is essentially possible to roll without static friction...
That implies that rolling friction and static friction are frictional forces essentially decoupled from each other.
But I guess, in real life, when a wheel rolls on a real surface, it experience both rolling friction and static friction. Is that correct? Or is that true only when the wheel is rolling and accelerating?
thank you!