abdossamad2003
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Suppose we leave an object on a non-sloping surface that rolls and moves forward without slipping. Does this object continue to move indefinitely?
Theoretically, Newton's first law applies.abdossamad2003 said:Suppose we leave an object on a non-sloping surface that rolls and moves forward without slipping. Does this object continue to move indefinitely?
For rolling at constant velocity the friction force is zero. If the friction force were non-zero, then there would be a torque on the ball.abdossamad2003 said:
The friction is zero. The ball would continue to roll uniformly on a frictionless surface. Friction is only required for acceleration and deceleration.abdossamad2003 said:Given that the motion is rolling, it means that the friction is non-zero.
It's rolling resistance, not friction, that determines the deceleration:abdossamad2003 said:Consider two modes, one with low friction and the other with more friction
The rolling body travels longer distances on the surface with less friction.
Note that, in particular, in your model the ball will be slowing down, but its rotation will be speeding up!abdossamad2003 said:
That diagram is equally wrong. Look at the Wikipedia page. Rolling resistance is complicated and cannot be reduced to a single force of friction.abdossamad2003 said:This diagram is probably correct because friction reduces rolling, but it contradicts Newton's second law.
View attachment 299646
because the motion is negative acceleration not possitive accelerationabdossamad2003 said:This diagram is probably correct because friction reduces rolling, but it contradicts Newton's second law.
View attachment 299646
In practice or in theory?abdossamad2003 said:Does this object continue to move indefinitely?