eep
- 225
- 0
Hi,
I've seen the Schrodinger equation written in the following form:
i\hbar\frac{\partial\Psi}{{\partial}t} = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\nabla^2\Psi + V\Psi
where
\nabla^{2} = \frac{\partial^{2}}{{\partial}x^2} + \frac{\partial^2}{{\partial}y^2} + \frac{\partial^2}{{\partial}z^2}
Now, is \nabla^2\Psi a vector or a scalar? In this notation, I would say it's a vector. You have \nabla^2 acting on each of the components of \Psi. However the book seems to say that \nabla^2\Psi is a scalar. Shouldn't the notation then be \nabla^2\cdot\Psi? That is, shouldn't it be a dot product? I'm rather confused...
I've seen the Schrodinger equation written in the following form:
i\hbar\frac{\partial\Psi}{{\partial}t} = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\nabla^2\Psi + V\Psi
where
\nabla^{2} = \frac{\partial^{2}}{{\partial}x^2} + \frac{\partial^2}{{\partial}y^2} + \frac{\partial^2}{{\partial}z^2}
Now, is \nabla^2\Psi a vector or a scalar? In this notation, I would say it's a vector. You have \nabla^2 acting on each of the components of \Psi. However the book seems to say that \nabla^2\Psi is a scalar. Shouldn't the notation then be \nabla^2\cdot\Psi? That is, shouldn't it be a dot product? I'm rather confused...
Last edited: