Schrodinger half spin states expectation values

AI Thread Summary
The expectation value of the spin operator \(\hat{S}_{x}\) with respect to the state \(\chi = \begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ 0 \end{pmatrix}\) is calculated using the formula \(\langle \hat{S}_{x} \rangle = (\chi^{T})^{*}\hat{S}_{x}\chi\). The calculation simplifies to \(\frac{\hbar}{2} \cdot 0\), resulting in an expectation value of 0. There is a noted confusion regarding the use of an integral in a discrete system, as well as a mistake in the column vector used in the final calculation. Ultimately, the correct expectation value is confirmed to be 0.
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Homework Statement



What is the expectation value of \hat{S}_{x} with respect to the state \chi = \begin{pmatrix}<br /> 1\\<br /> 0<br /> \end{pmatrix}?
\hat{S}_{x} = \frac{\bar{h}}{2}\begin{pmatrix}<br /> 0&amp;1\\<br /> 1&amp;0<br /> \end{pmatrix}

Homework Equations



&lt;\hat{S}_{x}&gt; = ∫^{\infty}_{-\infty}(\chi^{T})^{*}\hat{S}_{x}\chi

The Attempt at a Solution



So I have (\chi^{T})^{*} as equalling (1 0), giving me: \frac{\hbar}{2} ∫^{\infty}_{-\infty}\begin{pmatrix}<br /> 1&amp;0<br /> \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}<br /> 0&amp;1\\<br /> 1&amp;0<br /> \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}<br /> 1\\<br /> 0<br /> \end{pmatrix} which simplifies to \frac{\hbar}{2} ∫^{\infty}_{-\infty}\begin{pmatrix}<br /> 1&amp;0<br /> \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}<br /> 1\\<br /> 0<br /> \end{pmatrix} = 0. Is this right?
 
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This is a discrete system and it doesn't make sense to have an integral there. Also we wouldn't need a sum or integral since that is already implied by (\chi^{T})^{*}\hat{S}_{x}\chi. There is a mistake in the column vector in the last line as well, although you somehow came up with the correct answer.

\langle \hat{S}_x \rangle = (\chi^{T})^{*}\hat{S}_{x}\chi
 
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