Schwartz QFT book, Problem 14.3

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The forum discussion focuses on evaluating the integral from Schwartz's Quantum Field Theory (QFT) book, specifically problem 14.3 part (c). The integral involves the expression \(\int \cfrac{d^3 p}{2\pi^3} \omega_p e^{i \vec{p} \cdot (\vec{x}-\vec{y})}\), where \(\omega_p = \sqrt{p^2 + m^2}\). The user successfully performs the angular integration, yielding a result that involves Hankel functions, but seeks clarification on how to express the result in that form. The discussion also highlights the connection to the modified Bessel function of the second kind and its integral representation as detailed in Weinberg's QFT I.

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I am working on Schwartz QFT book problem 14.3, particularly part (c).
Basically, it asks us to evaluate the following integration.
\int \cfrac{d^3 p}{2\pi^3} \omega_p e^{i \vec{p} \cdot (\vec{x}-\vec{y})} where
\omega_p = \sqrt{p^2 + m^2}
I could perform the angular integration, and the result is
\cfrac{2}{(2\pi)^2 |x-y|} \int_0^{\infty} dp \,\,p \sqrt{p^2+m^2} \sin{(p|x-y|)} = \cfrac{2}{(2\pi)^2 |x-y|} \textrm{Im}\left( \int_0^{\infty} dp \,\,p \sqrt{p^2+m^2} e^{i p |x-y|} \right)
The textbook says it should be expressed as some sort of Hankel functions, but I am not sure how I get to that point. Do you guys have any suggestion? Thank you.
 
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I don't know if it works, but a substitution p2+m2 = x could give interesting results. It makes the exponential more complicated but simplifies everything else.
 
mfb said:
I don't know if it works, but a substitution p2+m2 = x could give interesting results. It makes the exponential more complicated but simplifies everything else.

Could you tell me in more detail? In fact, I could not find any integral representations of Hankel functions that matches with my integration.
 
Did you try it? What was the result?
 
The result is the derivative of the modified Bessel function of the second kind, whose integral representation is
upload_2017-2-12_12-27-45.png

http://mathworld.wolfram.com/ModifiedBesselFunctionoftheSecondKind.html

And the solution for the massive case is given in Weinberg's QFT I page 387, which can be derived from the above integral representation. For the massless case, it seems to me that the result is just the limit ##m\rightarrow 0## of the massive case, is this right? In taking the limit that ##m\rightarrow 0##, I didn't encounter any singular behavior.
 

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