- #1
jaejoon89
- 195
- 0
Letting A, B_1, B_2, ..., B_n subsets of X, then show
A\cap\bigcup_{n}^{i=1}B_{i} = \bigcup_{n}^{i=1}\left(A \cap\right B_{i})
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Is it sufficient to say...
By De Morgan law, we have
\left(A\cap \right B_{i})\cup\left(A \right \cap\ B_{2})\cup\ --- \cup\left(A\cap \right\ B_{n}) = \bigcup_{i=1}^{n}\left(A\cap \right B_{i})
Is that sufficient, or is there a better/more complete way to do it?
A\cap\bigcup_{n}^{i=1}B_{i} = \bigcup_{n}^{i=1}\left(A \cap\right B_{i})
----
Is it sufficient to say...
By De Morgan law, we have
\left(A\cap \right B_{i})\cup\left(A \right \cap\ B_{2})\cup\ --- \cup\left(A\cap \right\ B_{n}) = \bigcup_{i=1}^{n}\left(A\cap \right B_{i})
Is that sufficient, or is there a better/more complete way to do it?