Show that double integral does not exist

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the existence of a double integral, specifically focusing on the integral of a function involving logarithmic and piecewise components. Participants explore the implications of Fubini's theorem and consider potential conversions to polar coordinates.

Discussion Character

  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Some participants attempt to evaluate the integral with respect to one variable first, expressing concerns about the limits and existence of the integral. Others suggest that the original poster's reasoning may be flawed, particularly regarding the relationship between integrals and logarithmic functions. There is also mention of using polar coordinates as a potential approach.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants sharing various approaches to the problem. Some guidance has been offered regarding the evaluation of integrals, but there is no explicit consensus on the correct method or interpretation of the piecewise functions involved.

Contextual Notes

Participants note confusion regarding the piecewise functions and the limits of integration, indicating that there may be missing information or assumptions that need clarification.

bombz
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Homework Statement



Here are my problems.[PLAIN]http://img256.imageshack.us/img256/2254/whatua.jpg

Homework Equations



possible conversions to polar coordinates but I doubt that's needed. Fubini's theorem?

The Attempt at a Solution



So for the h(x,y) integral does not exist, I got this:

i took the first integral with respect to y and I came up with (Integral)(bound 0 to infinity) of [LN (1+x^2 +y^2)/(2*y)] evaluated from 0 to infinity. As that is not possible, the limit does not exist.. correct? I have no clue how to show it properly.

The second part, I have no clue at all. The stupid piecewise functions i do not understand
 
Last edited by a moderator:
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bombz said:

Homework Statement



Here are my problems.


[PLAIN]http://img256.imageshack.us/img256/2254/whatua.jpg

Homework Equations



possible conversions to polar coordinates but I doubt that's needed. Fubini's theorem?


The Attempt at a Solution



So for the h(x,y) integral does not exist, I got this:

i took the first integral with respect to y and I came up with (Integral)(bound 0 to infinity) of [LN (1+x^2 +y^2)/(2*y)] evaluated from 0 to infinity. As that is not possible, the limit does not exist.. correct? I have no clue how to show it properly.
This looks wrong to me. I think you are trying to say something like this:\int \frac{dx}{1 + x^2} = ln(1 + x^2)

It is not at all true that the integral of 1/<whatever> = ln(whatever).
bombz said:
The second part, I have no clue at all. The stupid piecewise functions i do not understand
 
Last edited by a moderator:
I immediately think polar coordinates when I see that:

\int_0^{\infty}\int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{r}{1+r^2}drdt

\pi/2\int_0^{\infty} \frac{r}{1+r^2}dr

\pi/4\int_1^{\infty}\frac{1}{u}du

\pi/4(\infty-0)

bingo-bango.
 
Last edited:
You may also integrate in the following way:

I = \int\limits_{0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{\sqrt{1+y^2}}\int\limits_{0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{1+(\frac{x}{\sqrt{1+y^2}})^2}\frac{1}{\sqrt{1+y^2}}dxdy

= \int\limits_{0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{\sqrt{1+y^2}}[\arctan(\frac{x}{\sqrt{1+y^2}})]|_{0}^{\infty}dy

= \frac{\pi}{2}\int\limits_{0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{ \sqrt{1+y^2}}dy

Let y = \tan\theta, then \frac{1}{\sqrt{1+y^2}} = \cos\theta, thus

I = \frac{\pi}{2}\int\limits_{0}^{\infty}\cos\theta \sec\theta \tan\theta d\theta

= \frac{\pi}{2}\int\limits_{0}^{\infty}\tan\theta d\theta = -\frac{\pi}{2}[\ln\cos\theta]|_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} = -\frac{\pi}{2} [-\infty - 0] Done.
 

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