Showing a property of Abelian groups of order n

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Homework Statement


Let G be an abelian group of order n, and let k be an nonnegative integer. If k is relatively prime to n, show that the subgroup generated by a is equal to the subgroup generated by ak

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The Attempt at a Solution


I'm not sure where to start. I know that we are equating two sets, so I think that I need to show that one is a subset of the other and vice versa, but I can't see where to use the fact that G is abelian and that k is relatively prime to n.
 
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Mr Davis 97 said:
I need to show that one is a subset of the other and vice versa
One of those directions is very easy, and doesn't need to use the 'relatively prime' property. Which one?

Write out the answer to that easy direction and you may find that it gives you ideas about how to complete the opposite direction, noting that you almost certainly will need to use the relatively prime property for that opposite direction. If you get stuck, hints may be forthcoming.
 
So I think I might have an answer. First, we note that any element of <a^k> is also an element of <a>, by the definition of <a>. So <a^k> is a subset of <a>.

Second, we need to show that <a> is a subset of <a^k>, that is, any element of <a> is also an element of <a^k>.
First we take note that n, the order of the group, and k, are relatively prime. That is, there exist integers b and c s.t. bk + cn = 1, which implies that for any integer m, (mb)k + (mc)n = m.
Take an arbitrary element of <a>, ##a^m##. Then ##a^m = a^{(mb)k + (mc)n} = a^{(mb)k} a^{(mc)n} = (a^{mb})^{k} (a^{n})^{mc} = (a^{mb})^{k} e = (a^{mb})^{k}##. Hence, any element of <a> is also an element of <a^k>. Thus, <a> is a subset of <a^k>.

Thus, <a> = <a^k>, when k is relatively prime to the order of the group.

Is this right?
 
In fact, when (k,n)=1 where n is the order of <a>, a^k is a generator of <a>, by the same reasoning you did. So, <a>= <a^k> automatically. It is equivalent to the fact that the group of the integers module n has [k] for a generator for any k such that (n,k)=1.
 
Looks correct, although it would be better to write ##(a^{mb})^k=(a^k)^{mb}## because you want to have powers of ##a^k##.
 
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There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...
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