4Newton said:
I did not want to insult you or your education but if you require an education here it is.
I didn't ask for a definition of a reference frame, I asked for a description of the specific reference frame you were working with. If someone asks you what your car looks like, do you say it has 4 wheels and an engine?
In your thought experiment, what is your velocity with respect to yourself?
Have you heard of the train tool for explaining reference frames? There are two guys - one sitting on a train moving at 10ft/sec (with respect to the platform), one standing on the platform. There is a woman walking forward on the train at 1ft/sec with respect to the train.
-With respect to the man on the train, the woman is moving at 1ft/sec.
-With respect to the man on the platform, the woman is moving at 11ft/sec.
-With respect to herself, she is stationary.
3 different reference frames from which to measure her speed, therefore 3 different speeds. All 3 are equally valid and therefore all 3 can be used to make accurate predictions about things like how long it will take for her to get to the end of the train. And yet none of them take into account the rotation of the Earth (but it would still work if you choose to use it).
All 3 can also be used to predict the time dilation of a clock she carries with her for the purpose of synchronizing her clock with the clocks the two guys are carrying. You are saying that all 3 would give
different predictions about her time dilation and that only one can be right.
The object of the experiment, that you don’t seem to get, is can you have a zero reference frame in which the relations of SR still apply.
You can keep repeating it(and I do understand what you are saying - its just that what you are saying is wrong), I'll keep telling you its wrong on both levels - no, its not consistent with SR, and no, it does not reflect reality. Again, the 1st postulate of SR is that all reference frames are equally valid. If all frames are equally valid, how can one be
more valid than the rest?
Can you apply the relations of SR to any coordinate system?
Yes. Of course. That (again) is the 1st postulate.
If SR is unable to be used when considering the possibility of any absolutes in the universe then there is a limitation on SR.
Well of course SR has limitations: it is constrained by the requirement that it match observations.
I think to help with you education you should look at:
http://www.metaresearch.org/cosmolo...-relativity.asp
If you go to the site above you will find no support for your position.
If you have any source of SR experimental results that disprove my two experiments I would be very happy to learn of them.
That's a
great link. I've read it before. You clearly do not understand it, but the gist of it is that GPS satellites perform exactly as SR/GR predict. I'm starting to doubt that you're serious here: you alternately argue that your idea fits SR and that SR is wrong. To argue against my assertion that SR fits observations, you post a link that says SR fits observations. Its bizarre. Come right out and say it: do you think SR fits observations or not?
Then some clocks moving at a slower velocity when brought back to a clock moving at a higher velocity will indicate more elapsed time indicating it had been running faster.
So, for example, a clock orbiting the Earth perpendicular to Earth's orbit around the sun will move faster (on average) than one orbiting parallel to Earth's orbit and as a result its clock will tick slower. Is that would you would predict?
Again you leave me no choice except educate you and explain to you the terms of a formula.
The rate of a clock as given in Einstein’s formula is stated with respect to C, C is the speed of light, and V, V is the velocity of the clock in a spatial direction. It stated nothing more and nothing less. If it will help your understanding then you name, describe, find a reference frame, or what ever else you must do to understand the concept.
You know Einstein didn't come up with that equation, right? Its called a Lorentz tranformation. If the equation was everything, we wouldn't need Einstein - we'd be using "Lorentzian Relativity" today (that is, btw, essentially what you are advocating). The part about reference frames, which you apparently don't think is relevant, is Einstein's entire contribution to the theory. If you don't use it, you're not using the equation as Einstein intended, you are using it as Lorentz intended.
SR says that all reference frames are equally valid, ie no one frame is "better" than the rest and the laws of the universe work the same for all of them. So which is it: do you want to use SR or not?
And again, its funny that you would say reference frames don't matter - in your attempt to show something about reference frames. Statements like that make me think you're kidding about all of this.
What does that (M&M experiment) have to do with the above?
The Michelson Morlely experiment was an attempt to find the universal reference frame. Since your thought experiment is an attempt to find the universal reference frame, I figured it might be relevant.
Have you heard of muon decay experiments? Muons decay at a fast and predictible rate. When fired from a particle accelerator, time dilation slows their decay rate. Would you predict that a muon fired in the same direction of the Earth's motion would decay faster, slower, or at the same rate as one fired in the opposite direction of the Earth's motion.
Also, the Earth's motion is about 1000 mph. If a particle is fired at C-500mph (relative to the ground), but in the direction of Earth's rotation, does that mean it is travleling faster than C?
If the speed of objects has an absolute relative to some universal reference frame, does light as well? Ie, since we measure the speed of objects to be different in different frames, but there is one "true" speed, does the same apply to light?