Solved: Heavyside Convolution: Calculate (\theta \ast \theta)(x)

  • Thread starter Thread starter Sigurdsson
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Convolution
Sigurdsson
Messages
24
Reaction score
1

Homework Statement


Calculate the convolution
(\theta \ast \theta)(x)

Homework Equations


Convolution is defined as:
(f \ast g)(x) \equiv \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x - y) g(y) \ dy = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(y) g(x-y) \ dy

The Attempt at a Solution


I know this is probably easy for many but I'm really baffled with the outcome. Here we go

(\theta \ast \theta)(x) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \theta(x - y) \theta(y) \ dy = \int_{-\infty}^0 \theta(x - y) \underbrace{\theta(y)}_0 \ dy + \int_0^{\infty} \theta(x - y) \underbrace{\theta(y)}_1 \ dy
= \int_0^{\infty} \theta(x - y) \ dy = y \theta(x - y)

However my result should be
= y \theta(y)

Gawdemmit, I can't spot my fault here. What am I missing?
Cheers.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Your integration with respect to y can't end up with a y in the result. How are you getting to your final result?
 
You're right, It should be

\int_0^y \theta(x - y) dy
 
The upper limit should be x, not y, because the step function equals 1 only when x-y > 0. Remember y is a dummy variable in the convolution integral. You should end up with a function of x.
 
<br /> \theta \ast \theta (x) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}{\theta(x - y) \, \theta(y) \, dy}<br />
Look where the argument of each of the functions becomes zero:
<br /> y = 0, \ y = x<br />
So, if x &lt; 0, the intervals in question are:

<br /> \begin{array}{c|c|c|c|c|c|c|c|}<br /> &amp; -\infty &amp; &amp; x &amp; &amp; 0 &amp; &amp; \infty \\<br /> \hline<br /> \theta(y) &amp; &amp; - &amp; - &amp; - &amp; 0 &amp; + &amp; \\<br /> \hline<br /> \theta(x - y) &amp; &amp; + &amp; 0 &amp; - &amp; - &amp; - &amp;<br /> \end{array}<br />

Since the Heaviside step function is zero whenever its argument is negative, we must have to "+" in both rows for the product to be non-zero. As you can see, this is never the case for x &lt; 0.

Now, suppose x &gt; 0. The intervals in question are:
<br /> \begin{array}{c|c|c|c|c|c|c|c|}<br /> &amp; -\infty &amp; &amp; 0 &amp; &amp; x &amp; &amp; \infty \\<br /> \hline<br /> \theta(y) &amp; &amp; - &amp; 0 &amp; + &amp; + &amp; + &amp; \\<br /> \hline<br /> \theta(x - y) &amp; &amp; + &amp; + &amp; + &amp; 0 &amp; - &amp;<br /> \end{array}<br />
Now, the only interval when the product is non-zero is (0, x). Thus, the convolution integral reduces to:
<br /> \theta \ast \theta(x) = \left\lbrace \begin{array}{ll}<br /> 0 &amp;, x &lt; 0 \\<br /> <br /> \int_{0}^{x}{d y} &amp;, x &gt; 0<br /> \end{array}\right.<br />

I think it is pretty straightforward to evaluate the remaining steps, and use the definition of Heaviside's step function to encompass both cases under a single expression.
 
Thanks guys I got it now.

The way you laid it out Dickfore makes it really clear but it unnerves me to solve an integral like that using just simple logic. I usually go straight for some rigorous integration rules and tricks instead of just visualizing the problem.

Thanks again
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top