Solving an immediate indefinite integral of a composite function

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on solving the indefinite integral $$\int \left(\frac{1}{\cos^2 x \cdot \tan^3 x}\right)dx$$. The original attempt incorrectly led to the result $$-\frac{1}{2\tan^2 x} + c$$. Participants clarified that converting the denominator into sine and cosine factors simplifies the problem, leading to the correct answer of $$-\frac{1}{2\sin^2 x} + c$$. The conversation emphasizes the importance of recognizing equivalent forms of integrals and the role of substitution in solving them.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of trigonometric identities, specifically $$\tan x = \frac{\sin x}{\cos x}$$.
  • Familiarity with integration techniques, particularly substitution methods.
  • Knowledge of the relationship between different trigonometric functions and their derivatives.
  • Ability to manipulate algebraic expressions involving trigonometric functions.
NEXT STEPS
  • Learn about trigonometric substitution in integrals, focusing on $$\int \sin(2x)dx$$ and its variations.
  • Study the properties of integrals involving $$\csc^2 x$$ and $$\cot^2 x$$.
  • Explore the use of Wolfram Alpha for visualizing differences between integral results.
  • Investigate common pitfalls in integration, particularly with trigonometric functions and constants of integration.
USEFUL FOR

Students and educators in calculus, particularly those focusing on integration techniques and trigonometric functions. This discussion is beneficial for anyone looking to deepen their understanding of indefinite integrals and their solutions.

greg_rack
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Homework Statement
$$\int (\frac{1}{cos^2x\cdot tan^3x})dx$$
Relevant Equations
none
That's my attempt:
$$\int (\frac{1}{cos^2x\cdot tan^3x})dx = \int (\frac{1}{cos^2x}\cdot tan^{-3}x) dx$$
Now, being ##\frac{1}{cos^2x}## the derivative of ##tanx##, the integral gets:
$$-\frac{1}{2tan^2x}+c$$
But there is something wrong... what?
 
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I'm missing what's supposed to be wrong here!
 
greg_rack said:
Homework Statement:: $$\int (\frac{1}{cos^2x\cdot tan^3x})dx$$
Relevant Equations:: none

That's my attempt:
$$\int (\frac{1}{cos^2x\cdot tan^3x})dx = \int (\frac{1}{cos^2x}\cdot tan^{-3}x) dx$$
Now, being ##\frac{1}{cos^2x}## the derivative of ##tanx##, the integral gets:
$$-\frac{1}{2tan^2x}+c$$
But there is something wrong... what?
Convert the denominator into a fraction with only sine and cosine factors. IOW, convert the ##\tan^3## factor. The resulting expression becomes a reasonably simple problem that can be done by nothing more complicated than substitution.
 
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Mark44 said:
Convert the denominator into a fraction with only sine and cosine factors. IOW, convert the ##\tan^3## factor. The resulting expression becomes a reasonably simple problem that can be done by nothing more complicated than substitution.
Is the OP's answer wrong?
 
PeroK said:
Is the OP's answer wrong?
The correct answer is ##-\frac{1}{2sin^2x}+c##
 
PeroK said:
Is the OP's answer wrong?
I didn't go through his work very closely -- I just showed an easier way to go about it.
 
greg_rack said:
The correct answer is ##-\frac{1}{2sin^2x}+c##
That's what you got, isn't it?
 
Mark44 said:
Convert the denominator into a fraction with only sine and cosine factors. IOW, convert the ##\tan^3## factor. The resulting expression becomes a reasonably simple problem that can be done by nothing more complicated than substitution.
I did it, and it took me to the correct answer.
But then I found out the method explained in the OP which looks legit to me, but takes me to a wrong answer, and so I wanted to understand why
 
PeroK said:
That's what you got, isn't it?
I got ##-\frac{1}{2tan^2x}+c## 🤔
 
  • #10
greg_rack said:
I got ##-\frac{1}{2tan^2x}+c## 🤔
Same thing. Don't forget the constant of integration!
 
  • #11
PeroK said:
Same thing. Don't forget the constant of integration!
What do you mean? How could ##tan^2x=sin^2x##?
 
  • #12
greg_rack said:
What do you mean? How could ##tan^2x=sin^2x##?
$$\frac{1}{tan^2x}= \frac{1}{sin^2x} + C$$ For some constant ##C##.
 
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  • #13
@greg_rack it's because$$-\frac{1}{2\sin^2{x}} + c_1 = -\frac{1}{2} \csc^2 x + c_1 = -\frac{1}{2} (1+ \cot^2{x}) + c_1 = - \frac{1}{2\tan^2{x}} + c_2$$
 
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  • #15
Thanks a lot guys!
 
  • #16
This is the same sort of situation you get with the integral ##\int \sin(x)\cos(x)dx##.
You can do this in at least three different ways, of which I'll show two.
1. Let ##u = \sin(x)##, so ##du = \cos(x)dx##. The resulting antiderivative is ##-\cos^2(x) + C##.
2. Let ##u = \cos(x)##, so ##du = -\sin(x)dx##. The resulting antiderivative is ##\sin^2(x) + C##
These results look different, but because ##\sin^2(x) + \cos^2(x) = 1##, ##\sin^2(x)## and ##-\cos^2(x)## differ only by a constant, 1.

The third way involves writing the integrand as ##\sin(2x)##.
 
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  • #17
greg_rack said:
Thanks a lot guys!
Everyone has to learn this lesson once! Usually it's:
$$\int \sin (2x) dx = -\frac 1 2 \cos(2x) + C$$ And
$$\int \sin (2x) dx = \int 2 \sin x \cos x dx = -\cos^2 x + C$$ Which are related by the trig identity $$\cos(2x) = 2\cos^2 x - 1$$
 
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  • #18
another non-trig one that can sometimes catch people out$$\frac{1}{a} \ln{ax} + c_1 = \int \frac{\mathrm{d}x}{ax} = \frac{1}{a} \int \frac{\mathrm{d}x}{x} = \frac{1}{a} \ln{x} + c_2$$
 
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  • #19
Another "favorite": In the integral ##\int\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}dx##, depending on whether you substitute ##x=\sin(u)## or ##x=\cos(u),## you will get either ##\arcsin(x)+c_1## or ##-\arccos(x)+c_2.##
 
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  • #20
$$\int \frac{1}{\sqrt{x^2 + a^2}} \ dx = \sinh^{-1}(\frac x a) + C_1 = \ln(x + \sqrt{x^2 + a^2}) + C_2$$
 
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