Solving an immediate indefinite integral of a composite function

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the indefinite integral of a composite function involving trigonometric identities, specifically the integral $$\int (\frac{1}{\cos^2 x \cdot \tan^3 x}) dx$$. Participants are exploring various approaches to simplify and solve this integral.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Some participants attempt to rewrite the integral in terms of sine and cosine to facilitate easier integration. Others express confusion regarding the correctness of the original poster's (OP's) solution and question the validity of the steps taken. There are discussions about the equivalence of different forms of the answers obtained and the implications of constants of integration.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing alternative methods and questioning the OP's reasoning. Some guidance has been offered regarding rewriting the integral, but there is no explicit consensus on the correctness of the OP's approach or the resulting answers.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of considering different methods of integration and the potential for multiple valid forms of the answer due to the nature of indefinite integrals. There is also mention of the need to clarify assumptions regarding trigonometric identities and their implications in the context of the integral.

greg_rack
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Homework Statement
$$\int (\frac{1}{cos^2x\cdot tan^3x})dx$$
Relevant Equations
none
That's my attempt:
$$\int (\frac{1}{cos^2x\cdot tan^3x})dx = \int (\frac{1}{cos^2x}\cdot tan^{-3}x) dx$$
Now, being ##\frac{1}{cos^2x}## the derivative of ##tanx##, the integral gets:
$$-\frac{1}{2tan^2x}+c$$
But there is something wrong... what?
 
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I'm missing what's supposed to be wrong here!
 
greg_rack said:
Homework Statement:: $$\int (\frac{1}{cos^2x\cdot tan^3x})dx$$
Relevant Equations:: none

That's my attempt:
$$\int (\frac{1}{cos^2x\cdot tan^3x})dx = \int (\frac{1}{cos^2x}\cdot tan^{-3}x) dx$$
Now, being ##\frac{1}{cos^2x}## the derivative of ##tanx##, the integral gets:
$$-\frac{1}{2tan^2x}+c$$
But there is something wrong... what?
Convert the denominator into a fraction with only sine and cosine factors. IOW, convert the ##\tan^3## factor. The resulting expression becomes a reasonably simple problem that can be done by nothing more complicated than substitution.
 
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Mark44 said:
Convert the denominator into a fraction with only sine and cosine factors. IOW, convert the ##\tan^3## factor. The resulting expression becomes a reasonably simple problem that can be done by nothing more complicated than substitution.
Is the OP's answer wrong?
 
PeroK said:
Is the OP's answer wrong?
The correct answer is ##-\frac{1}{2sin^2x}+c##
 
PeroK said:
Is the OP's answer wrong?
I didn't go through his work very closely -- I just showed an easier way to go about it.
 
greg_rack said:
The correct answer is ##-\frac{1}{2sin^2x}+c##
That's what you got, isn't it?
 
Mark44 said:
Convert the denominator into a fraction with only sine and cosine factors. IOW, convert the ##\tan^3## factor. The resulting expression becomes a reasonably simple problem that can be done by nothing more complicated than substitution.
I did it, and it took me to the correct answer.
But then I found out the method explained in the OP which looks legit to me, but takes me to a wrong answer, and so I wanted to understand why
 
PeroK said:
That's what you got, isn't it?
I got ##-\frac{1}{2tan^2x}+c## 🤔
 
  • #10
greg_rack said:
I got ##-\frac{1}{2tan^2x}+c## 🤔
Same thing. Don't forget the constant of integration!
 
  • #11
PeroK said:
Same thing. Don't forget the constant of integration!
What do you mean? How could ##tan^2x=sin^2x##?
 
  • #12
greg_rack said:
What do you mean? How could ##tan^2x=sin^2x##?
$$\frac{1}{tan^2x}= \frac{1}{sin^2x} + C$$ For some constant ##C##.
 
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  • #13
@greg_rack it's because$$-\frac{1}{2\sin^2{x}} + c_1 = -\frac{1}{2} \csc^2 x + c_1 = -\frac{1}{2} (1+ \cot^2{x}) + c_1 = - \frac{1}{2\tan^2{x}} + c_2$$
 
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  • #15
Thanks a lot guys!
 
  • #16
This is the same sort of situation you get with the integral ##\int \sin(x)\cos(x)dx##.
You can do this in at least three different ways, of which I'll show two.
1. Let ##u = \sin(x)##, so ##du = \cos(x)dx##. The resulting antiderivative is ##-\cos^2(x) + C##.
2. Let ##u = \cos(x)##, so ##du = -\sin(x)dx##. The resulting antiderivative is ##\sin^2(x) + C##
These results look different, but because ##\sin^2(x) + \cos^2(x) = 1##, ##\sin^2(x)## and ##-\cos^2(x)## differ only by a constant, 1.

The third way involves writing the integrand as ##\sin(2x)##.
 
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  • #17
greg_rack said:
Thanks a lot guys!
Everyone has to learn this lesson once! Usually it's:
$$\int \sin (2x) dx = -\frac 1 2 \cos(2x) + C$$ And
$$\int \sin (2x) dx = \int 2 \sin x \cos x dx = -\cos^2 x + C$$ Which are related by the trig identity $$\cos(2x) = 2\cos^2 x - 1$$
 
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  • #18
another non-trig one that can sometimes catch people out$$\frac{1}{a} \ln{ax} + c_1 = \int \frac{\mathrm{d}x}{ax} = \frac{1}{a} \int \frac{\mathrm{d}x}{x} = \frac{1}{a} \ln{x} + c_2$$
 
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  • #19
Another "favorite": In the integral ##\int\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}dx##, depending on whether you substitute ##x=\sin(u)## or ##x=\cos(u),## you will get either ##\arcsin(x)+c_1## or ##-\arccos(x)+c_2.##
 
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  • #20
$$\int \frac{1}{\sqrt{x^2 + a^2}} \ dx = \sinh^{-1}(\frac x a) + C_1 = \ln(x + \sqrt{x^2 + a^2}) + C_2$$
 
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