Solving integral from 5/(x^2 + 1) dx from -1 to 1 works one way but

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the integral of 5/(x^2 + 1) dx from -1 to 1, with a focus on different substitution methods involving trigonometric identities. Participants are examining the implications of using x = tan(θ) versus x = cot(θ) for solving the integral.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the successful computation of the integral using the tan substitution while encountering issues with the cot substitution. Questions arise regarding the validity of chosen angles and the behavior of inverse trigonometric functions.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided clarifications on the range of the inverse cotangent function and the implications of selecting specific angles. There is ongoing exploration of why certain angle choices are preferred over others, with references to graphical interpretations of the cotangent function.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the constraints of the inverse cotangent function's range and the behavior of cotangent near its asymptotes, which influences the selection of angles for substitution.

s3a
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Homework Statement


The integral of 5/(x^2 + 1) dx from -1 to 1. (The TheIntegral.jpg attachment shows this in a aesthetically-pleasing way.)

Homework Equations


sin^2 (θ) + cos^2 (θ) = 1
1 + tan^2 (θ) = sec^2 (θ)
cot^2 (θ) + 1 = csc^2 (θ)

x = tan(θ)
x = cot(θ)

The Attempt at a Solution


When I am solving the integral, I successfully compute it using the x = tan(θ) substitution but when I use the x = cot(θ) substitution, I get the wrong answer.

My specific work is attached as MyWork.jpg. The work in black is the work I got correct (as indicated by the red writing) and, the work in green is the work I get wrong (as indicated by the red writing).

Could someone please tell me what I am doing wrong when using the cot(θ) substitution?
 

Attachments

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\text{cot}^{-1}1\neq \frac{1}{\tan^{-1}1}

The inverse trig functions do not satisfy the same identities as the trig functions.
 
s3a said:

Homework Statement


The integral of 5/(x^2 + 1) dx from -1 to 1. (The TheIntegral.jpg attachment shows this in a aesthetically-pleasing way.)

Homework Equations


sin^2 (θ) + cos^2 (θ) = 1
1 + tan^2 (θ) = sec^2 (θ)
cot^2 (θ) + 1 = csc^2 (θ)

x = tan(θ)
x = cot(θ)

The Attempt at a Solution


When I am solving the integral, I successfully compute it using the x = tan(θ) substitution but when I use the x = cot(θ) substitution, I get the wrong answer.

My specific work is attached as MyWork.jpg. The work in black is the work I got correct (as indicated by the red writing) and, the work in green is the work I get wrong (as indicated by the red writing).

Could someone please tell me what I am doing wrong when using the cot(θ) substitution?

\cot(\theta) blows up when \tan(\theta) = 0, ie. when \theta = n\pi.

So you need to find values for \cot^{-1}(\pm 1) which lie between 0 and \pi. \cot^{-1}(1) = \frac{\pi}{4} and \cot^{-1}(-1) = \frac{3\pi}{4} will do.
 
Thanks, gother_p, for specifying.

Also, pasmith, thanks for your answer too however, although I can see how using 3π/4 would work algebraically, I don't get how I would know to choose 3π/4 over –π/2; when θ = –π/2, θ ≠ nπ (for n being any integer).

Also, instead of values between 0 and π, I could choose values between 0 and –π if I wanted, right?
 
Actually, I meant θ = –π/4 instead of θ = –π/2.

Also, I'm still confused as to why I can't choose θ = –π/4 instead of θ = 3π/4 (for the reason I listed in my previous post) and, I would really appreciate it if this can be elaborated upon.

Lastly, if I'm not being clear, tell me what to clarify and, I will do so.
 
s3a said:
Actually, I meant θ = –π/4 instead of θ = –π/2.

Also, I'm still confused as to why I can't choose θ = –π/4 instead of θ = 3π/4 (for the reason I listed in my previous post) and, I would really appreciate it if this can be elaborated upon.

Lastly, if I'm not being clear, tell me what to clarify and, I will do so.

You can't choose \theta = -\frac{\pi}{4}, because by definition the range of the inverse cotangent function \theta = \cot^{-1} x is 0 < \theta < \pi. There is only one value for \cot^{-1} \left( -1 \right) and that is \frac{3\pi}{4}.
 
Oh, I think I get it now!

To attempt to restate what you guys said using graphical terminology, is it because in the graph of f(x) = cot(x), there is an asymptote separating –π/4 and π/4 so, we could choose to replace –π/4 with 3π/4, for example, because, the cotangent of –π/4 and 3π/4 yield the the same value or, equivalently, we could choose any other two angles both of which are between the same asymptotes such as –π/4 and –3π/4?
 
s3a said:
Oh, I think I get it now!

To attempt to restate what you guys said using graphical terminology, is it because in the graph of f(x) = cot(x), there is an asymptote separating –π/4 and π/4 so, we could choose to replace –π/4 with 3π/4, for example, because, the cotangent of –π/4 and 3π/4 yield the the same value or, equivalently, we could choose any other two angles both of which are between the same asymptotes such as –π/4 and –3π/4?

Yes.
 
pasmith said:
Yes.
Thanks for confirming. :)
 

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