Solving integral from 5/(x^2 + 1) dx from -1 to 1 works one way but

In summary, when solving an integral using the cotangent substitution, it is important to choose values for theta that lie between the asymptotes of the cotangent function, which are 0 and π. Choosing values outside of this range may result in incorrect answers.
  • #1
s3a
818
8

Homework Statement


The integral of 5/(x^2 + 1) dx from -1 to 1. (The TheIntegral.jpg attachment shows this in a aesthetically-pleasing way.)

Homework Equations


sin^2 (θ) + cos^2 (θ) = 1
1 + tan^2 (θ) = sec^2 (θ)
cot^2 (θ) + 1 = csc^2 (θ)

x = tan(θ)
x = cot(θ)

The Attempt at a Solution


When I am solving the integral, I successfully compute it using the x = tan(θ) substitution but when I use the x = cot(θ) substitution, I get the wrong answer.

My specific work is attached as MyWork.jpg. The work in black is the work I got correct (as indicated by the red writing) and, the work in green is the work I get wrong (as indicated by the red writing).

Could someone please tell me what I am doing wrong when using the cot(θ) substitution?
 

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  • #2
[itex]\text{cot}^{-1}1\neq \frac{1}{\tan^{-1}1}[/itex]

The inverse trig functions do not satisfy the same identities as the trig functions.
 
  • #3
s3a said:

Homework Statement


The integral of 5/(x^2 + 1) dx from -1 to 1. (The TheIntegral.jpg attachment shows this in a aesthetically-pleasing way.)

Homework Equations


sin^2 (θ) + cos^2 (θ) = 1
1 + tan^2 (θ) = sec^2 (θ)
cot^2 (θ) + 1 = csc^2 (θ)

x = tan(θ)
x = cot(θ)

The Attempt at a Solution


When I am solving the integral, I successfully compute it using the x = tan(θ) substitution but when I use the x = cot(θ) substitution, I get the wrong answer.

My specific work is attached as MyWork.jpg. The work in black is the work I got correct (as indicated by the red writing) and, the work in green is the work I get wrong (as indicated by the red writing).

Could someone please tell me what I am doing wrong when using the cot(θ) substitution?

[itex]\cot(\theta)[/itex] blows up when [itex]\tan(\theta) = 0[/itex], ie. when [itex]\theta = n\pi[/itex].

So you need to find values for [itex]\cot^{-1}(\pm 1)[/itex] which lie between [itex]0[/itex] and [itex]\pi[/itex]. [itex]\cot^{-1}(1) = \frac{\pi}{4}[/itex] and [itex]\cot^{-1}(-1) = \frac{3\pi}{4}[/itex] will do.
 
  • #4
Thanks, gother_p, for specifying.

Also, pasmith, thanks for your answer too however, although I can see how using 3π/4 would work algebraically, I don't get how I would know to choose 3π/4 over –π/2; when θ = –π/2, θ ≠ nπ (for n being any integer).

Also, instead of values between 0 and π, I could choose values between 0 and –π if I wanted, right?
 
  • #5
Actually, I meant θ = –π/4 instead of θ = –π/2.

Also, I'm still confused as to why I can't choose θ = –π/4 instead of θ = 3π/4 (for the reason I listed in my previous post) and, I would really appreciate it if this can be elaborated upon.

Lastly, if I'm not being clear, tell me what to clarify and, I will do so.
 
  • #6
s3a said:
Actually, I meant θ = –π/4 instead of θ = –π/2.

Also, I'm still confused as to why I can't choose θ = –π/4 instead of θ = 3π/4 (for the reason I listed in my previous post) and, I would really appreciate it if this can be elaborated upon.

Lastly, if I'm not being clear, tell me what to clarify and, I will do so.

You can't choose [itex]\theta = -\frac{\pi}{4}[/itex], because by definition the range of the inverse cotangent function [itex]\theta = \cot^{-1} x[/itex] is [itex]0 < \theta < \pi[/itex]. There is only one value for [itex]\cot^{-1} \left( -1 \right)[/itex] and that is [itex]\frac{3\pi}{4}[/itex].
 
  • #7
Oh, I think I get it now!

To attempt to restate what you guys said using graphical terminology, is it because in the graph of f(x) = cot(x), there is an asymptote separating –π/4 and π/4 so, we could choose to replace –π/4 with 3π/4, for example, because, the cotangent of –π/4 and 3π/4 yield the the same value or, equivalently, we could choose any other two angles both of which are between the same asymptotes such as –π/4 and –3π/4?
 
  • #8
s3a said:
Oh, I think I get it now!

To attempt to restate what you guys said using graphical terminology, is it because in the graph of f(x) = cot(x), there is an asymptote separating –π/4 and π/4 so, we could choose to replace –π/4 with 3π/4, for example, because, the cotangent of –π/4 and 3π/4 yield the the same value or, equivalently, we could choose any other two angles both of which are between the same asymptotes such as –π/4 and –3π/4?

Yes.
 
  • #9
pasmith said:
Yes.
Thanks for confirming. :)
 

1. How do you solve the integral 5/(x^2+1) dx from -1 to 1?

To solve this integral, we can use the substitution method. Let u = x^2+1, then du = 2x dx. We can rewrite the integral as 5/2 * 1/u du. Now, we can use the natural logarithm function to integrate: 5/2 * ln(u). Substituting back u = x^2+1, we get 5/2 * ln(x^2+1). Evaluating the integral from -1 to 1, we get a final answer of 5/2 * ln(2).

2. Why does solving the integral from -1 to 1 only work one way?

This is because the function 5/(x^2+1) is an odd function, meaning that it is symmetric about the origin. Therefore, when we are solving the integral from -1 to 1, we are essentially finding the area under the curve from 0 to 1 and then doubling it. However, if we were to solve the integral from 1 to -1, we would be finding the area from 0 to -1 and then doubling it, which would give us the same answer as solving it from -1 to 1.

3. Can we use a different method to solve this integral?

Yes, there are other methods that can be used to solve this integral, such as integration by parts or using trigonometric substitutions. However, the substitution method is the most straightforward and efficient method for this particular integral.

4. What is the significance of the limits of integration being -1 and 1?

The limits of integration represent the interval over which we are finding the area under the curve. In this case, -1 and 1 are the endpoints of the interval over which we want to find the area. These limits are important because they determine the bounds of our integral and ultimately, the final answer.

5. Can this integral be solved without using calculus?

No, this integral requires the use of calculus to solve. It involves finding the antiderivative of a function and evaluating it at specific limits. Without the use of calculus, it is not possible to solve this type of integral.

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