Solving Integral Using Laplace Transform

pierce15
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I posted this in the homework section, but I haven't received any help, so hopefully putting it in this section won't be an issue. I'm trying to compute the integral

$$ \int_0^ \infty \frac{ \cos xt}{1 + t^2} \, dt $$

using the Laplace transform. The first thing that catches my eye is the 1 /(1 + t^2) factor, which is equal to the Laplace transform of sin x:

$$ = \int_0^\infty \cos xt \, L[ \sin x ] \, dt $$

Any ideas?
 
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Why do you want to use the Laplace transformation here? I'd rather use the Fourier transformation. It's simpler to put it first in the exponential form. Your Integral is
F(x)=\frac{1}{2}\int_0^{\infty} \frac{\exp(\mathrm{i} x t)+\exp(-\mathrm{i} x t)}{1+t^2}.
Substituting t'=-t in the second integral you get after some algebra
F(x)=\frac{1}{2} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{\exp(\mathrm{i} x t)}{1+t^2}. \qquad (1)
Now we use the fact that
\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{\mathrm{d} x}{2 \pi} \exp(-|x|) \exp(-\mathrm{i} t x)=\frac{1}{\pi (1+t^2)}.
Thus (1) is (up to a factor \pi/2) the inverse of this Fourier transform. This gives
F(x)=\frac{\pi \exp(-|x|)}{2}.
 
Ok, thanks for that. Do you also see any way to do it with the Laplace transform?
 
Hm, I've no idea. Perhaps you can somehow use the convolution theorem with some clever trick?
 
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