Solving Integration of Wave Equation for x|Psi|^2

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the integration of the wave equation, specifically Psi_n = sqrt(2/a)sin(n*pi*x/a), and the evaluation of the integral of x|Psi|^2 over a specified range. Participants are exploring how the integral expression simplifies and its implications for dimensional consistency.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are questioning the validity of integrating over the entire real line versus a specific range, as the wavefunction is only valid within a certain domain. There are inquiries about the simplification of the integral result to a/2 and concerns regarding dimensional consistency of the terms involved.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights and corrections regarding the integration limits and dimensional analysis. There is no explicit consensus yet, as participants are still exploring the implications of their findings and questioning the calculations presented.

Contextual Notes

There is a noted constraint regarding the integration limits, as the wavefunction is only applicable within the well, which affects the setup of the integral. Additionally, concerns about the dimensionality of the terms in the integral expression are being raised.

diewlasing
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where the wave equation is Psi_n = sqrt(2/a)sin(n*pi*x/a). When you do the integral of -inf to +inf of x|Psi|^2, the CRC handbook works it out to be:

(x^2)/4 - (xsin(2ax))/4a - cos(2ax)/(8a^2).

And I know the solution works out to be a/2 somehow but I don't know how to get it. I worked it down to:

ax - 2sin(2ax) - 2/ax = 0. I don't know if this is the right track. Can someone shed some light on this?
Thanks in advance.
 
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diewlasing said:
where the wave equation is Psi_n = sqrt(2/a)sin(n*pi*x/a). When you do the integral of -inf to +inf of x|Psi|^2, the CRC handbook works it out to be:

(x^2)/4 - (xsin(2ax))/4a - cos(2ax)/(8a^2).

And I know the solution works out to be a/2 somehow but I don't know how to get it. I worked it down to:

ax - 2sin(2ax) - 2/ax = 0. I don't know if this is the right track. Can someone shed some light on this?



Thanks in advance.

Don't integrate from minus inifnity to plus infinity. The wavefunction you give is valid only inside the well. Outside the well, the wavefunction is zero. So integrate over the width of the well only.
 
right my fault, but the integral works out to be:

(x^2)/4 - (xsin(2ax))/4a - cos(2ax)/(8a^2)

My question is how does that simplify to a/2?
 
diewlasing said:
right my fault, but the integral works out to be:

(x^2)/4 - (xsin(2ax))/4a - cos(2ax)/(8a^2)

My question is how does that simplify to a/2?

This can't be right since it does not have the dimensions of a length. Even worse, all the terms don't have the same dimensions. So check your calculation carefully.
 
Where did all the factors of n\pi go? Those will help when simplifying
 

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